ANAESTHESIOLOGY- PAGE 3
ANAESTHESIOLOGY MCQs
1) D-Dimer level increases in all of the following except -:
A) End stage liver failure
B) DIC
C) Hyperfibrinolysis
D) Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Ans: 4
2) All of these are agonist-antagonist Opioid compound except -:
A) Mepridine
B) Pantazocine
C) Butorphanol
D) Buprenorphine
Ans: 1
3) The features of propofol infusion syndrome are -:
1) Refractory bradycardia
2) Metabolic acidosis
3) Hyperlipidemia
4) Metabolic alkalosis
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 only
D) 1 , 2 and 3
Ans: 4
4) Etomidate is -:
A) Phenol derivative
B) Imidazole derivative
C) Amide derivative
D) Phenclyedine derivative
Ans: 2
5) All of following are vitamin K dependent protein except -:
A) Factor VII
B) Factor IX
C) Protein C and S
D) Factor III
Ans: 4
6) Potency of a drug describes -:
A) Effectiveness once it occupies receptors
B) Amount of drug required to elicit its effects
C) Concentration range in which drug effect occurs
D) Lethal dose of a drug
Ans: 2
7) Which of the following is not a method of sleep evaluation -:
1) Actigraphy
2) Polysomnography
3) Plethysmography
4) Polygraphy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1 , 2 and 4
Ans: 3
8) Which is the most common nerve injury following spinal anaesthesia -:
A) Lumbosacral nerve root or cord
B) Spinal cord injury
C) Sciatic nerve injury
D) Femoral nerve injury
Ans: 1
9) All of the following are absolute contraindication to neuraxial block except -:
A) Patients inability to maintain stillness during needle puncture
B) Raised intracranial pressure
C) Spina bifida
D) Patient refusal
Ans: 3
10) Complication of Intercostal nerve block is -:
1) Pneumothorax
2) Horner syndrome
3) Phernic nerve block
4) Plural Effusion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 , 3 and 4
Ans: 2
11) For Microcuff tracheal tube for children, which of the following statements are true -:
1) There is less potential space for edema formation in the subglottic region
2) More even pressure is applied to the mucosa & the trachea.
3) There is reduced risk for ventilator associated pneumonia.
4) The cuff is located more proximally than standard tracheal tubes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 4
12) Absolute Contraindication for Extra Corporeal shock wave lithotripsy for urinary stones is -:
A) Patients with pacemakers
B) Orthopedic prosthesis
C) Pregnancy
D) Obesity
Ans: 3
13) All of these may increase Hepatic encephalopathy except -:
A) Hypokalemia
B) Propofol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Systemic alkalemia
Ans: 2
14) In Liver transplant surgery as the Reperfusion of the graft starts through Portal Vein, there is an increase in -:
1. Potassium
2. Hydrogen ion
3. SVR & B.P
4. Preload
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,2 and 4
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 1 , 2 and 3
D) 3 Only
Ans: 1
15) Which of the following are signs of bladder perforation during TURP -:
1. Bradycardia
2. Shoulder pain
3. Diaphoresis
4. Visual disturbances
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 3 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Ans: 3
16) During One lung ventilation, for encouraging the pulmonary blood flow the Ventilated lung should be kept -:
A) More than FRC
B) Less than FRC
C) Initially more than FRC for 10 mts than lower than FRC
D) At its normal FRC
Ans: 4
17) The majority of patients who desaturate during OLV (One lung ventilation), do so -:
A) Within the first 10 minutes
B) After 30 minutes
C) After 1 hrs
D) Within 2 minutes
Ans: 1
18) The Extracorporeal Cardiopulmonary bypass activate -:
A) Intrinsic coagulation pathway
B) Extrinsic coagulation pathway
C) Both Intrinsic & Extrinsic coagulation pathway and directly impairs platelet function
D) Intrinsic & Extrinsic coagulation pathway but does not impairs platelet function directly
Ans: 3
19) Sugammadex is a -:
A) Muscle relaxant
B) Cyclodextrin to antagonize effect of steroidal muscle relaxants
C) Respiratory stimulant
D) Reverses effect of Succinylcholine in resistant cases
Ans: 2
20) In Depolarizing block, TOF (Train of four) ratio -:
A) Is 100%
B) Is 90%
C) Is 80%
D) Fades
Ans: 1
21) The Chest Compression depth during CPR & the rate of Compression respectively should be -:
A) At least 2-2.5 inches & 100-120/mt
B) At least 1.5 inches & 90/mt
C) At least 1 inches & 72/mt
D) At least 3.5 inches & 120/mt
Ans: 1
22) If during Adult Tachyarrhythmia with regular narrow QRS complexes, rate >150/min, the dose of Adenosine & energy for cardio version is
A) Adenosine first dose 6 mg, if required Second dose 12 mg, Cardio version with 120
B) First dose adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push, if required Second dose 12 mg, Cardio version with 50
C) Adenosine first dose 3 mg, if required Second dose 6 mg, Cardio version with 25
D) Adenosine first dose 12 mg, if required Second dose 24 mg, Cardio version with 120
Ans: 2
23) Which of the following is not a component of Child-Turcott-Pugh scoring system -:
A) Albumim level
B) Bilirubin level
C) Potassium level
D) Ascites
Ans: 3
24) Which of the following are features of TURP syndrome -:
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hyposmolality
3. Hypernatremia
4. Hyperammonemia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,3 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 ,3 and 4
D) 1 , 2 and 4
Ans: 4
25) Volatile aneasthetic of Choice for Bariatric surgery is -:
A) Desflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Isoflurane
D) Halothane
Ans: 1
26) In obese patients with BMI of more than 35kg/m2, doses of which of the following drug should be determined on the
basis of Ideal body weight -:
A) Succinylcholine
B) Midazolam
C) Vecuronium
D) Fentanyl
Ans: 3
27) Which one of the following decreases in a pregnant patient -:
A) Minute Ventilation
B) Tidal Vol
C) Resp. Rate
D) FRC
Ans: 4
28) During magnesium sulfate therapy for eclampsia, the goal is to achieve the level of magnesium in blood is in the
range of -:
A) 1 - 1.5 mEq/L
B) 2 - 3.5 mEq/L
C) 3.5 - 4.5 mEq/l
D) 4.5 - 5 mEq/L
Ans: 2
29) Glycosylated Hemoglobin(HbA1c) reflects mean blood glucose concentration over approximately -:
A) 60 days
B) 30 days
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Ans: 1
30) The most dangerous nerve injury after subtotal thyroidectomy is -:
A) Injury to the abductor fibres & the recurrent larynageal nerves unilaterally
B) Injury to the abductor fibres bilaterally
C) Injury to adductor fibres unilaterally
D) Injury to adductor fibres bilaterally
Ans: 2
31) Which of the following is true about Pin index system -:
A) Pins are 6 mm in diameter
B) All pins are of same thickness
C) Pins located on circle of 9/16 inch diameter
D) Pins present on cylinder fits in hole in Yoke
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following are features of Myasthenia gravis in a patient -:
1) There is weakness of legs more than arms
2) Exercise improves strength
3) There is poor response to anticholinesterase
4) There is extraocular, bulbar & facial muscle weakness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,2 and 3
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 4 only
D) 1 and 2
Ans: 3
33) Treatment strategies for increased Intracranial pressure in TBI ( Traumatic brain injury) are all except -:
A) Moderate head up position
B) Osmo therapy
C) Hypothermia
D) Steroids
Ans: 4
34) Elimination Half-life for Fentanyl is -:
A) 3.1 – 6.6 hrs
B) 1.7 – 3.3 hrs
C) 1.4 – 1.5 hrs
D) 0.17 – 0.33 hrs
Ans: 2
35) Filling density is
A) Ratio of weight of gas in cylinder to the weight of water that cylinder could hold
B) Volume of cylinder occupied by liquid phase of gas
C) Molecular density of cylinder material
D) Ratio of liquid phase to gas phase in cylinder
Ans: 1
36) For Neuraxial analgesia for labour pain, adequate analgesia is achieved during the first stage, if the blockade is
up to -:
A) T10 to L1
B) T10 to S4
C) L1 to S4
D) T4 to L1
Ans: 1
37) All of the following are present on permanent marking of cylinder, except -:
A) Specification Number
B) Service pressure at 700F
C) Name of Contained gas
D) Manufacturer Name
Ans: 3
38) What are the effects of intermittent back pressure on Vaporizer output -:
A) Pumping effect decreases and pressurizing effect increases vaporizer output
B) Both Pumping and Pressurizing effect increases vaporizer output
C) No effect of back pressure on vaporizer output
D) Pumping effect increases & pressurizing effect decreases vaporizer output
Ans: 4
39) All of the following are positive predictions of survival after sudden cardiac arrest except -:
A) Witnessed cardiac arrest
B) Initiation of CPR by by-stander
C) Initial rhythm of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) or Ventricular Fibrillation
D) Chronic diabetes mellitus
Ans: 4
40) Most common type of Latex allergic reaction is -:
A) Type III
B) Type IV
C) Type II
D) Type I
Ans: 2
41) Vapour pressure of sevoflurane is -:
A) 243 torr at 200c
B) 669 torr at 200c
C) 157 torr at 200c
D) 278 torr at 200c
Ans: 3
42) Use of Rib guide in flow meter is -:
A) Keep the indicator in center
B) Does not allow ball indicator to rotate
C) Prevent the indicator from plugging the outlet
D) Provide calibration to flow meter tube
Ans: 1
43) With ball indicator in flow meter reading is taken at -:
A) Lower convex margin ball
B) Upper margin of ball
C) At slanted grooves
D) Midpoint of ball
Ans: 4
44) Phase IV in capnograph indicates-:
A) Later part of inspiration
B) Inhalation of Fresh gas
C) Alveolar plateau
D) Emptying of Alveoli
Ans: 2
45) Rotameter flow meters calibrated at 1 ATA will indicate -:
A) Falsely high values at increased ambient pressure (4 ATA)
B) Falsely low values at increased ambient pressure (4 ATA)
C) No change in values
D) Will show no change in value till 4 ATA but will show false low values above 4 ATA
Ans: 1
46) Decreased ETCO2 is present in following conditions -:
1) Impaired Peripheral circulation
2) Increased Patient dead space
3) On Release of torniquet
4) Pulmonary embolus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) 1 only
Ans: 3
47) A Leak in gas sampling line produces on capnograph -:
A) Biphasic expiratory plateau
B) Irregular plateau
C) Elevated baseline with normal waveform
D) Long plateau with up swinging at phase III
Ans: 4
48) Which of the following is not true about Neuro muscular monitoring -:
A) Fade is present in Non depolarizing block
B) Waveform is Biphasic
C) Facial nerve should not be used to assess recovery from neuromuscular blockade
D) In Double Burst Stimulation two burst of 50 Hz are separated by 750 ms
Ans: 2
49) When longer version of Bains system is used in remote anaesthesia such as in MRI unit, following happens, except -:
A) Reduction in PEEP
B) Increase in static compliance
C) Reduction in Peak inspiratory pressure
D) Reduction in tidal volume with same ventilator settings
Ans: 1
50) Hazards of fluid warming to the patient are -:
1) Infection
2) Hemolysis
3) Air embolism
4) False decrease in BIS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 2and 4
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 4
A) End stage liver failure
B) DIC
C) Hyperfibrinolysis
D) Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Ans: 4
2) All of these are agonist-antagonist Opioid compound except -:
A) Mepridine
B) Pantazocine
C) Butorphanol
D) Buprenorphine
Ans: 1
3) The features of propofol infusion syndrome are -:
1) Refractory bradycardia
2) Metabolic acidosis
3) Hyperlipidemia
4) Metabolic alkalosis
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 only
D) 1 , 2 and 3
Ans: 4
4) Etomidate is -:
A) Phenol derivative
B) Imidazole derivative
C) Amide derivative
D) Phenclyedine derivative
Ans: 2
5) All of following are vitamin K dependent protein except -:
A) Factor VII
B) Factor IX
C) Protein C and S
D) Factor III
Ans: 4
6) Potency of a drug describes -:
A) Effectiveness once it occupies receptors
B) Amount of drug required to elicit its effects
C) Concentration range in which drug effect occurs
D) Lethal dose of a drug
Ans: 2
7) Which of the following is not a method of sleep evaluation -:
1) Actigraphy
2) Polysomnography
3) Plethysmography
4) Polygraphy
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1 , 2 and 4
Ans: 3
8) Which is the most common nerve injury following spinal anaesthesia -:
A) Lumbosacral nerve root or cord
B) Spinal cord injury
C) Sciatic nerve injury
D) Femoral nerve injury
Ans: 1
9) All of the following are absolute contraindication to neuraxial block except -:
A) Patients inability to maintain stillness during needle puncture
B) Raised intracranial pressure
C) Spina bifida
D) Patient refusal
Ans: 3
10) Complication of Intercostal nerve block is -:
1) Pneumothorax
2) Horner syndrome
3) Phernic nerve block
4) Plural Effusion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 2 and 3
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 , 3 and 4
Ans: 2
11) For Microcuff tracheal tube for children, which of the following statements are true -:
1) There is less potential space for edema formation in the subglottic region
2) More even pressure is applied to the mucosa & the trachea.
3) There is reduced risk for ventilator associated pneumonia.
4) The cuff is located more proximally than standard tracheal tubes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 4
12) Absolute Contraindication for Extra Corporeal shock wave lithotripsy for urinary stones is -:
A) Patients with pacemakers
B) Orthopedic prosthesis
C) Pregnancy
D) Obesity
Ans: 3
13) All of these may increase Hepatic encephalopathy except -:
A) Hypokalemia
B) Propofol
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Systemic alkalemia
Ans: 2
14) In Liver transplant surgery as the Reperfusion of the graft starts through Portal Vein, there is an increase in -:
1. Potassium
2. Hydrogen ion
3. SVR & B.P
4. Preload
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,2 and 4
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 1 , 2 and 3
D) 3 Only
Ans: 1
15) Which of the following are signs of bladder perforation during TURP -:
1. Bradycardia
2. Shoulder pain
3. Diaphoresis
4. Visual disturbances
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 3 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Ans: 3
16) During One lung ventilation, for encouraging the pulmonary blood flow the Ventilated lung should be kept -:
A) More than FRC
B) Less than FRC
C) Initially more than FRC for 10 mts than lower than FRC
D) At its normal FRC
Ans: 4
17) The majority of patients who desaturate during OLV (One lung ventilation), do so -:
A) Within the first 10 minutes
B) After 30 minutes
C) After 1 hrs
D) Within 2 minutes
Ans: 1
18) The Extracorporeal Cardiopulmonary bypass activate -:
A) Intrinsic coagulation pathway
B) Extrinsic coagulation pathway
C) Both Intrinsic & Extrinsic coagulation pathway and directly impairs platelet function
D) Intrinsic & Extrinsic coagulation pathway but does not impairs platelet function directly
Ans: 3
19) Sugammadex is a -:
A) Muscle relaxant
B) Cyclodextrin to antagonize effect of steroidal muscle relaxants
C) Respiratory stimulant
D) Reverses effect of Succinylcholine in resistant cases
Ans: 2
20) In Depolarizing block, TOF (Train of four) ratio -:
A) Is 100%
B) Is 90%
C) Is 80%
D) Fades
Ans: 1
21) The Chest Compression depth during CPR & the rate of Compression respectively should be -:
A) At least 2-2.5 inches & 100-120/mt
B) At least 1.5 inches & 90/mt
C) At least 1 inches & 72/mt
D) At least 3.5 inches & 120/mt
Ans: 1
22) If during Adult Tachyarrhythmia with regular narrow QRS complexes, rate >150/min, the dose of Adenosine & energy for cardio version is
A) Adenosine first dose 6 mg, if required Second dose 12 mg, Cardio version with 120
B) First dose adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push, if required Second dose 12 mg, Cardio version with 50
C) Adenosine first dose 3 mg, if required Second dose 6 mg, Cardio version with 25
D) Adenosine first dose 12 mg, if required Second dose 24 mg, Cardio version with 120
Ans: 2
23) Which of the following is not a component of Child-Turcott-Pugh scoring system -:
A) Albumim level
B) Bilirubin level
C) Potassium level
D) Ascites
Ans: 3
24) Which of the following are features of TURP syndrome -:
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hyposmolality
3. Hypernatremia
4. Hyperammonemia
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,3 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 ,3 and 4
D) 1 , 2 and 4
Ans: 4
25) Volatile aneasthetic of Choice for Bariatric surgery is -:
A) Desflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Isoflurane
D) Halothane
Ans: 1
26) In obese patients with BMI of more than 35kg/m2, doses of which of the following drug should be determined on the
basis of Ideal body weight -:
A) Succinylcholine
B) Midazolam
C) Vecuronium
D) Fentanyl
Ans: 3
27) Which one of the following decreases in a pregnant patient -:
A) Minute Ventilation
B) Tidal Vol
C) Resp. Rate
D) FRC
Ans: 4
28) During magnesium sulfate therapy for eclampsia, the goal is to achieve the level of magnesium in blood is in the
range of -:
A) 1 - 1.5 mEq/L
B) 2 - 3.5 mEq/L
C) 3.5 - 4.5 mEq/l
D) 4.5 - 5 mEq/L
Ans: 2
29) Glycosylated Hemoglobin(HbA1c) reflects mean blood glucose concentration over approximately -:
A) 60 days
B) 30 days
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Ans: 1
30) The most dangerous nerve injury after subtotal thyroidectomy is -:
A) Injury to the abductor fibres & the recurrent larynageal nerves unilaterally
B) Injury to the abductor fibres bilaterally
C) Injury to adductor fibres unilaterally
D) Injury to adductor fibres bilaterally
Ans: 2
31) Which of the following is true about Pin index system -:
A) Pins are 6 mm in diameter
B) All pins are of same thickness
C) Pins located on circle of 9/16 inch diameter
D) Pins present on cylinder fits in hole in Yoke
Ans: 3
32) Which of the following are features of Myasthenia gravis in a patient -:
1) There is weakness of legs more than arms
2) Exercise improves strength
3) There is poor response to anticholinesterase
4) There is extraocular, bulbar & facial muscle weakness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,2 and 3
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 4 only
D) 1 and 2
Ans: 3
33) Treatment strategies for increased Intracranial pressure in TBI ( Traumatic brain injury) are all except -:
A) Moderate head up position
B) Osmo therapy
C) Hypothermia
D) Steroids
Ans: 4
34) Elimination Half-life for Fentanyl is -:
A) 3.1 – 6.6 hrs
B) 1.7 – 3.3 hrs
C) 1.4 – 1.5 hrs
D) 0.17 – 0.33 hrs
Ans: 2
35) Filling density is
A) Ratio of weight of gas in cylinder to the weight of water that cylinder could hold
B) Volume of cylinder occupied by liquid phase of gas
C) Molecular density of cylinder material
D) Ratio of liquid phase to gas phase in cylinder
Ans: 1
36) For Neuraxial analgesia for labour pain, adequate analgesia is achieved during the first stage, if the blockade is
up to -:
A) T10 to L1
B) T10 to S4
C) L1 to S4
D) T4 to L1
Ans: 1
37) All of the following are present on permanent marking of cylinder, except -:
A) Specification Number
B) Service pressure at 700F
C) Name of Contained gas
D) Manufacturer Name
Ans: 3
38) What are the effects of intermittent back pressure on Vaporizer output -:
A) Pumping effect decreases and pressurizing effect increases vaporizer output
B) Both Pumping and Pressurizing effect increases vaporizer output
C) No effect of back pressure on vaporizer output
D) Pumping effect increases & pressurizing effect decreases vaporizer output
Ans: 4
39) All of the following are positive predictions of survival after sudden cardiac arrest except -:
A) Witnessed cardiac arrest
B) Initiation of CPR by by-stander
C) Initial rhythm of Ventricular Tachycardia (VT) or Ventricular Fibrillation
D) Chronic diabetes mellitus
Ans: 4
40) Most common type of Latex allergic reaction is -:
A) Type III
B) Type IV
C) Type II
D) Type I
Ans: 2
41) Vapour pressure of sevoflurane is -:
A) 243 torr at 200c
B) 669 torr at 200c
C) 157 torr at 200c
D) 278 torr at 200c
Ans: 3
42) Use of Rib guide in flow meter is -:
A) Keep the indicator in center
B) Does not allow ball indicator to rotate
C) Prevent the indicator from plugging the outlet
D) Provide calibration to flow meter tube
Ans: 1
43) With ball indicator in flow meter reading is taken at -:
A) Lower convex margin ball
B) Upper margin of ball
C) At slanted grooves
D) Midpoint of ball
Ans: 4
44) Phase IV in capnograph indicates-:
A) Later part of inspiration
B) Inhalation of Fresh gas
C) Alveolar plateau
D) Emptying of Alveoli
Ans: 2
45) Rotameter flow meters calibrated at 1 ATA will indicate -:
A) Falsely high values at increased ambient pressure (4 ATA)
B) Falsely low values at increased ambient pressure (4 ATA)
C) No change in values
D) Will show no change in value till 4 ATA but will show false low values above 4 ATA
Ans: 1
46) Decreased ETCO2 is present in following conditions -:
1) Impaired Peripheral circulation
2) Increased Patient dead space
3) On Release of torniquet
4) Pulmonary embolus
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 2, 3 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 1, 2 and 4
D) 1 only
Ans: 3
47) A Leak in gas sampling line produces on capnograph -:
A) Biphasic expiratory plateau
B) Irregular plateau
C) Elevated baseline with normal waveform
D) Long plateau with up swinging at phase III
Ans: 4
48) Which of the following is not true about Neuro muscular monitoring -:
A) Fade is present in Non depolarizing block
B) Waveform is Biphasic
C) Facial nerve should not be used to assess recovery from neuromuscular blockade
D) In Double Burst Stimulation two burst of 50 Hz are separated by 750 ms
Ans: 2
49) When longer version of Bains system is used in remote anaesthesia such as in MRI unit, following happens, except -:
A) Reduction in PEEP
B) Increase in static compliance
C) Reduction in Peak inspiratory pressure
D) Reduction in tidal volume with same ventilator settings
Ans: 1
50) Hazards of fluid warming to the patient are -:
1) Infection
2) Hemolysis
3) Air embolism
4) False decrease in BIS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1, 2and 4
B) 1, 3 and 4
C) 4 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: 4
51) Curare cleft is seen in -:
A) Capnograph
B) Plethysmograph
C) Electro myograph
D) Invasive blood pressure tracing
Ans: 1
52) Most common dysrhythmia 2-5 days after cardiac surgery is-:
A) Heart block
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Atrial fibrillation
D) Ventricular ectopics
Ans: 3
53) Deep Hypothermic circulatory Arrest involves reducing the patients core temperature to -:
A) Less than 150c
B) 150c - 220c
C) 22oc - 250c
D) 250c - 280c
Ans: 2
54) Which of the following manifestations is not a feature of Diabetic Autonomic Neuropathy -:
A) Resting Tachycardia
B) Absent beat to beat variation in heart rate with deep breathing
C) Orthostatic Hypotension
D) Resting Bradycardia
Ans: 4
55) Post operative Complications after correction of coarctation of aorta can be -:
1) Paradoxical Hypertension
2) Claudication
3) Paraplegia
4) Abdominal pain
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,3 and 4
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 2 only
D) 1 only
Ans: 1
56) Hemodynamic compromise following protamine during cardiac surgery, if protamine reaction occurs is characterized
by-:
A) ↑ In Pulmonary arterial pressure and ↓ in systemic pressure
B) ↓ In Pulmonary arterial pressure but no change in systemic pressure
C) No change in systemic arterial pressure but ↑ in Pulmonary arterial pressure
D) ↓ In Pulmonary arterial & ↑ systemic pressure
Ans: 1
57) Airway Obstruction that occurs soon after tracheal extubation despite normal vocal cord function after thyroidectomy
suggest the diagnosis of -:
A) Paralysis of abductor fibres & Recurrent larygngeal nerve
B) Tracheal compression by a hematoma
C) Tracheomalacia
D) Paralysis of adductor fibres & Recurrent larygngeal nerve
Ans: 3
58) Which of the following does not fit in the criteria of precautions to be taken during a laser surgery -:
A) Using water soaked sponges around the tube at the site of the work and at the glottis
B) Cuff should be filled with saline
C) Flexometallic tubes should be used
D) Proper fitting tubes with no leak should be used
Ans: 3
59) Modified Aldrete score is for assessing -:
A) Patient to be fit for Ambulatory surgery
B) Recovery after anaesthesia to transfer patient from phase 1 recovery unit
C) Assessing difficult airway
D) Patient to be fit for liver transplant
Ans: 2
60) All of the following can be the effects of HBOT (Hyperberic oxygen therapy) on the eye except -:
A) Narrowing of visual fields
B) Change in the refractive index & the lens
C) Myopia
D) Conjuctivitis
Ans: 4
61) In case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia surgery all are true except -:
A) Positive- pressure Ventilation by mask should be avoided
B) Preferably awake tracheal Intubation should be done
C) After tracheal Intubation, positive airway pressure during mechanical Ventilation of the lung should not exceed 25-30 cm H2O
D) After tracheal Intubation, positive airway pressure during mechanical Ventilation of the lung should exceed 30 cm H2O
Ans: 4
62) In a Tracheo-oesophageal fistula repair surgery in a neonate, Endotracheal tube placement should be -:
A) Above the carina but below the tracheo-esophageal fistula
B) Below the carina in Right bronchus
C) Below the carina in left bronchus
D) Above the tracheo-esophageal fisule
Ans: 1
63) The dose of Dantrolene for the Treatment of Malignant Hyperthermia is -:
A) 5-6 mg/kg
B) 2-3 mg/kg
C) 8-10 mg/kg
D) 10-12 mg/kg
Ans: 2
64) The most important mechanism for the increase in alveolar-arterial gradient for oxygen observed in geriatric patient is
due to -:
A) Decrease in Total lung capacity
B) Closing capacity increases more than FRC
C) Decrease in Residual Volume
D) Decrease in Vital Capacity
Ans: 2
65) Which of the following can be used for pain relief after a cleft-lip -:
A) Lesser palatine nerve block
B) Greater palatine nerve block
C) Nasopalatine nerve block
D) Infraorbital nerve block
Ans: 4
66) Goals for early Resuscitation in a Trauma patient are -:
1) Maintain systolic blood pressure of 80-100 mm Hg
2) Maintain Hematocrit of 25%- 30%
3) Maintain core temp lower than 350c
4) Maintain PT <= 14 sec
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes-:
A) 1 ,2 and 4
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 1 ,2 and 3
D) 1 and 2
Ans: 1
67) Gas cylinder used in MRI ( Magnetic resonance imaging) set up is made up of -:
A) Molybdenum
B) Titanium
C) Aluminium
D) Armoured Steel
Ans: 3
68) Liquid crystal is -:
A) A Oxygen concentrator
B) A Temperature monitor
C) A Gas monitor
D) Used in Pulse oxymetry
Ans: 2
69) Disadvantages of Hypothermia are -:
1) Inhibits Platelet function
2) Increased symphathetic activity
3) Hypervolumia
4) Delayed recovery
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 ,2 and 4
B) 2 ,3 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 4 only
Ans: 1
70) What among these is used in Plasma sterilizer -:
A) Temperature more than 600c
B) Moist environment
C) γ radiation
D) Hydrogen peroxide
Ans: 4
71) Which of the following statement is true about Heat moisture exchange (HME) filter -:
A) Hydrophobic Heat Moisture Exchange filter is more efficient in Temperature & moisture conservation than Hygroscopic
filter
B) Hygroscopic HME filter is better bacterial and viral filter
C) Hygroscopic HME filter is more resistant in wet condition
D) Hydrophobic HME performance does not impair by high ambient temperature
Ans: 3
72) Most common location of Reservoir bag in classic circle system is -:
A) Just upstream to inspiratory unidirectional valve
B) Between inspiratory unidirectional valve and absorber
C) Between expiratory unidirectional valve and absorber
D) Between inspiratory unidirectional valve and Y-Piece
Ans: 3
73) Most frequently reported malfunction in medical gas pipeline system -:
A) Cross Connection
B) Excessive pressure
C) Alarm Dysfunction
D) Inadequate pressure
Ans: 4
74) Mixed venous oxygen saturation increases in -:
A) Anaemia
B) Sepsis
C) Seizures
D) Low Cardiac output
Ans: 2
75) Increase in Airflow resistance of patient ventilator system display on waveform as -:
A) Shifting of P – V slope & loop towards pressure axis
B) Bowing of P – V loop
C) Shifting of P – V slope & loop towards volume axis
D) Increase in Plateau pressure
Ans: 2
76) Ventilatory mode with continuous Positive airway pressure at two distinct pressure level is known as -:
A) Pressure support ventilation
B) Pressure control ventilation
C) Pressure regulated volume control
D) Airway pressure release ventilation
Ans: 4
77) When a ventilator delivers a mechanical breath in response to patients effort it is called -:
A) Time triggered
B) Pressure or Flow triggered
C) Volume triggered
D) Intermittent breath
Ans: 2
78) EPAP (Expiratory Peak airway Pressure) & IPAP (Inspiratory Peak airway pressure) in initial Non invasive ventilation
setting are -:
A) 2 and 6 cm H2O respectively
B) 5 and 10 cm H2O respectively
C) 4 and 8 cm H2O respectively
D) 3 and 8 cm H2O respectively
Ans: 3
79) IRV(Inverse ratio ventilation) reduces intrapulmonary shunting & improvement in oxygenation by -:
A) Increase in Peak inspiratory pressure
B) Increase in Dead space ventilation & Auto PEEP
C) Increase in Mean airway pressure & Auto PEEP
D) Increase in Peak expiratory pressure
Ans: 3
80) Strategies in Refractory ARDS are -:
1) Plateau pressure more than 35 cm H2O
2) Prone position ventilation
3) Permissive Hypercapnia
4) High PEEP with low tidal volume
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 2 , 3 and 4
B) 1 ,3 and 4
C) 1 , 2 and 4
D) 1 only
Ans: 1
81) PaO2 / FiO2 ratio of less than or equal to 200 mm Hg is characteristic of -:
A) VAP
B) ARDS
C) ALI
D) Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Ans: 2
82) Which of the following statement is true regarding pulse oximetry -:
A) Reflectance oximetry relies on light that is back scattered
B) Oxyhemoglobin absorbs more light in red band of light
C) Fractional oxygen saturation is ratio of oxyhemoglobin to all functional Hemoglobin species
D) Reduced Hemoglobin absorb more light in infrared band
Ans: 1
83) Decrease in PaCO2 causes all except -:
A) Decrease cerebral Metabolism
B) Decrease cerebral blood flow
C) Cerebral vasoconstriction
D) Increase in cerebral tissue Lactate concentration
Ans: 1
84) Which of the following occurs in venous air embolism -:
1) Increase in ETCO2
2) Mill wheel murmur
3) PA catheter can recognize Paradoxical VAE
4) CVC in SVC can aspirate more air than in right atrium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below -:
A) 1 , 2 and 3
B) 2, 3 and 4
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
Ans: 2
85) Oxygen flush -:
A) Generates flow rate 35 to 75 lit/min
B) Gets supply from flow water
C) Self opening device
D) Low pressure system
Ans: 1
86) Vital capacity equals to -:
A) IRV
B) IRV + TV + ERV
C) IRV + ERV
D) IRV + TV
Ans: 2
87) Pressure on the globe or any orbital contents can result in oculocardiac reflex with all the signs mentioned below
except -:
A) Bradycardia
B) Laryngospasm
C) Atro ventricular Block
D) Asystole
Ans: 2
88) Which of the following is not a modality for assessment of systemic Perfusion -:
A) Urine Output
B) Lactate clearance
C) Mixed Venous Oxygenation
D) End tidal CO2
Ans: 4
89:-ENIGMA trial evaluated the use of which anaesthetic agent
A:-Etomidate B:-Nitrous oxide C:-Isof|urane D:-Morphine
Ans: B
90:-All of the following are true about inhaled anaesthetic agents except
A:-Increase rate of mucous clearance B:-Reduce tidal volume and minute ventilation
C:-Diaphragmatic function is well preserved D:-Inspiratory rib cage muscles are depressed
Ans: A
91:-Techniques to prevent post operative nausea and vomiting include Allexcept
A:-Use regional anaesthesia alone B:-Avoid use of nitrous oxide for anaesthesia maintenance
C:-Use of inhalation agent instead of propofol if general anaesthesia used D:-Try to avoid paralysis if c|inica||y indicated Ans: C
92:-Which of the following bronchial blockers have a bifurcated tip?
A:-Arndt blocker B:-Cohen blocker C:-EZ blocker D:-Unib|ocker Ans: C
93:-Haemodynamic goals in a patient with aortic stenosis include Allexcept
A:-Sinus Rhythm B:-Maintain heart rate C:-Avoid increasing systemic vascular resistance D:-Maintain venous return Ans: C
94:-All of the following are electrolyte imbalances seen in an infant with severe vomiting except
A:-Hyponatremia B:-Hyperch|oremia C:-Hypokalemia D:-Metabo|ic alkalosis Ans: B
95:-Which of the following irrigating fluids cause transient post operative visual syndrome
A:-Distilled water B:-Glycine C:-Sorbitol D:-Mannitol Ans: B
96:-How many days must ticlopidine be stopped before administering neuraxial block?
A:-Don't stop B:-7 days C:-14 days D:-21 days Ans: C
97:-Parkland formula for resuscitation in burns patients uses which fluid
A:-Crysta||oid B:-Co||oid C:-Crysta||oid and colloid D:-A|bumin Ans: A
98:-Which of the following is not part of the lethal triad in a trauma patient
A:-Acidosis B:-Coagulopathy C:-Hypothermia D:-Haemorrhage Ans: D
99:-Which of the following criteria is assessed as part of the modified Aldrete Scoring System
A:-Respiration B:-Pain C:-Nausea and vomitting D:-Surgica| bleeding
Ans: A
100:-The pin index safety system for carbon dioxide is
A:-1.5 B:-2.5 C:-l.6 D:-2.6 Ans: C
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