ANALYST-CUM-PROGRAMMER
ANALYST-CUM-PROGRAMMER MCQs
1. There is a certain four digit number whose fourth digit is twice the first digit. Third digit is three more than second digit. Sum of the first and fourth digits is twice of the third number. Which number is it ?
1. 4368
2. 4638
3. 2034
4. both (1) and (3) are correct
Ans: 4
2. How many ways to order a 5 distinct card deck
1. 120
2. 5
3. 10
4. 15
Ans: 1
3. Three persons enter a railway compartment. If there are 5 seats vacant, in how many ways can they take these seats?
1. 60
2. 20
3. 15
4. 125
Ans: 1
4. Negative numbers can be represented in
1. Signed magnitude form
2. 1’s complement form
3. 2’s complement form
4. All of these
Ans: 4
5. In any relation with the functional dependency (FD) is A → B , DB → C which of the following holds
1. B → A
2. DA → C
3. DB → A
4. C → A
Ans: 2
6. Which of the following scheme is used to ensure atomicity of transactions in database systems
1. Time-stamp based Protocol
2. Log File
3. Two-phase Locking
4. None of these
Ans: 2
7. In SQL, which command is used to display data from two or multiple tables
1. LIST
2. SELECT
3. SHOW
4. MULTIPLY
Ans: 2
8. The two-phase locking protocol ensures
1. Both serializability and recoverabilty
2. Serializability only
3. Recoverability only
4. None of these
Ans: 2
9. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R.
1. It will result in a deadlock situation
2. It will immediately be rejected
3. It will immediately be granted
4. It will be granted as soon as it is released by A
Ans: 3
10. Which is an invalid transactional ACID property
1. Atomicity
2. Consistency
3. Isolation
4. Duality
Ans: 4
11. In which normal form decomposition of a relationship is lossless join but may not be dependency preserving
1. PJNF
2. BCNF
3. 3NF
4. all of these
Ans: 2
12. If every non-key attribute is fully functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation will be in
1. First normal form
2. Second normal form
3. Third normal form
4. Fourth normal form
Ans: 2
13. Which is the correct hierarchy of a database?
1. rows->tablespace->table->database
2. rows->table->tablespace->database
3. database->table->tablespace->rows
4. None of these
Ans: 2
14. Tables derived from the ER-Diagram
1. Are totally normalised
2. Can be further denormalised
3. May have multi-valued attributes
4. Are always in 1NF
Ans: 4
15. The relationship of DEPARTMENT to the EMPLOYEES is a
1. One-to-one relationship
2. One-to-many relationship
3. Many-to-many relationship
4. Many-to-one relationship
Ans: 2
16. Which is the correct property of B Tree
1. Number of keys in each node must be equal number of its children nodes
2. Number of keys in each node must be one less than the number of its children nodes
3. Number of keys in each node must be greater than number of its children nodes
4. Number of keys in each node must be half number of its children nodes
Ans: 2
17. Consider a schema R(A, B, C, D) and functional dependencies A→B and C→D.
Then the decomposition of R into R1(AB) and R2(CD) is
1. dependency preserving and lossless join
2. lossless join but not dependency preserving
3. dependency preserving but not lossless join
4. not dependency preserving and not lossless join
Ans: 3
18. What is the valid sequence of processing a DBMS query?
1. SQL statement->parse->optimize->generate execution
2. SQL statement->validate->parse->optimize->generate execution
3. SQL statement->parse->validate->optimize->generate execution
4. None of these
Ans: 3
19. The SQL statement select * from R, Q is equivalent to
1. Select * from R natural join Q
2. Select * from R cross join Q
3. Select * from R union join Q
4. Select * from R inner join Q
Ans: 2
20. Which is a DCL command?
1. Grant
2. Commit
3. Update
4. Rollback
Ans: 1
21. Which one will generate an error?
1. SELECT * FROM emp WHERE empid = 493945;
2. SELECT empid FROM emp WHERE empid= 493945;
3. SELECT empid FROM emp;
4. SELECT empid WHERE empid = 56949 AND lastname = ‘SMITH’;
Ans: 4
22. Which statement is incorrect
1. A weak entity doesn't have a primary key
2. A relation can have multiple number of unique keys
3. Relational algebra is more expressive than relational calculus
4. In a relation ordering of tuples is not substantial
Ans: 3
23. Which is correct syntax of ALTER TABLE?
1. ALTER TABLE Customer-details DROP (Contact_Phone);
2. ALTER TABLE Customer-Details ADD Contact_Phone Char (10);
3. ALTER TABLE Customer-details MODIFY Contact_Phone Char (12);
4. All of these
Ans: 4
24. Which is correct statement for Triggers?
1. To maintain views
2. To execute action automatically whenever an event occurs.
3. To implement business rules
4. All of these
Ans: 4
25. Which is NOT the purpose of normalization of schema
1. Conversion of data to a canonical form to promote schema integration
2. Reduction of the number of anomalies that can occur during inserts, deletes, and updates
3. Elimination of redundant data stored in the database
4. none of these
Ans: 1
26. The transactional concurrency leads to increase
1. Integrity
2. Consistency
3. Mutual execution
4. Throughput
Ans: 4
27. The database schema is written in
1. Data Definition Language
2. Data Manipulation Language
3. Data Control Language
4. Tool Command Language
Ans: 1
28. Which is the correct method to physically store the records in a specified order according to the key field in each record
1. Hash
2. Direct
3. Sequential
4. All of these
Ans: 1
29. The example of derived attribute is
1. Name if age is given as other attribute
2. Age if date of birth is given as other attribute
3. 1 and 2 both
4. None of these
Ans: 2
30. This operation is used when a user is interested in only certain columns of a table
1. Selection
2. Union
3. Join
4. Projection
Ans: 4
31. Which level of database is closest to the user
1. Physical
2. Conceptual
3. Internal
4. External or View based
Ans: 4
32. Which is correct statement for updating in a table instructor salary by 10 percentages?
1. Update instructor Set salary=salary*1.10;
2. Update instructor Set salary=110;
3. Update instructor where salary=salary*1.10;
1. Update instructor In salary=salary*1.10;
Ans: 1
33. In a relational algebra, the Cartesian product is
1. Unary operator
2. Binary operator
3. Ternary operator
4. None of these
Ans: 2
34. In a stored procedure, when specifying a string parameter you should use which one of these data types?
1. CHAR
2. VARCHAR2
3. TEXT
4. REAL
Ans: 2
35. Which statement correctly differentiates between the Relational database (RDB) and Object Oriented database (OODB) models
1. OODB supports multiple objects in the same database while RDB only supports a single table per database
2. OODB incorporates methods in which the definition of the data structure is given, while RDB does not
3. RDB allows the definition of the relationships between the different tables, while OODB does not allow the relationships to be defined between objects
4. RDB supports indexes, while OODB does not support indexes
Ans: 2
36. An advantage of packet switching is
1. Better utilization of network links
2. Lower propagation delay
3. Less electro-magnetic interference
4. Delay guarantees in voice communications
Ans: 1
37. The X.25 protocol encapsulates the following layers
1. Data Link Layer
2. Network Layer
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these
Ans: 3
38. This layer in the OSI model handles terminal emulation
1. Session
2. Presentation
3. Transport
4. Application
Ans: 4
39. Which is untrue for the RPC
1. Allow programs to call procedures located on other machines
2. Avoids the overhead of multiple system calls
3. Allows communication through global variables
4. Provides programmers with a familiar procedural interface
Ans: 3
40. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
1. 0 to 63
2. 1 to 63
3. 0 to 64
4. 1 to 64
Ans: 1
41. The size of the congestion Window in the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm
1. Does not increase
2. Increases linearly
3. Increases quadratically
4. Increases exponentially
Ans: 4
42. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
1. Half-duplex
2. Full-duplex
3. Simplex
4. Automatic
Ans: 3
43. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 20
Ans: 2
44. Number of bit used for host id in IPv4 Class A addressing is
1. 8 bits
2. 12 bits
3. 16 bits
4. 24 bits
Ans: 4
45. When data and acknowledgment are sent on the same frame, this is called
1. piggybacking
2. backpacking
3. piggypacking
4. a good idea
Ans: 1
46. 10Base2 and 10Base5 have different______________
1. signal band types
2. fields on the 802.3 frame
3. maximum segment lengths
4. maximum data rates
Ans: 3
47. Which IPv4 address class has few Net-ID per network?
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
Ans: 1
48. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is_________
1. equal to the remainder at the sender
2. zero
3. nonzero
4. the quotient at the sender
Ans: 2
49. Which is correct statement for need of Time to Live (TTL) field in an IP datagram?
1. It can be used to prioritize packets
2. It can be used to reduce delays
3. It can be used to optimize throughput
4. It can be used to prevent packet looping
Ans: 4
50. A timer is set when__________is sent out
1. a packet
2. an ACK
3. a NAK
4. all of these
Ans: 1
1. 4368
2. 4638
3. 2034
4. both (1) and (3) are correct
Ans: 4
2. How many ways to order a 5 distinct card deck
1. 120
2. 5
3. 10
4. 15
Ans: 1
3. Three persons enter a railway compartment. If there are 5 seats vacant, in how many ways can they take these seats?
1. 60
2. 20
3. 15
4. 125
Ans: 1
4. Negative numbers can be represented in
1. Signed magnitude form
2. 1’s complement form
3. 2’s complement form
4. All of these
Ans: 4
5. In any relation with the functional dependency (FD) is A → B , DB → C which of the following holds
1. B → A
2. DA → C
3. DB → A
4. C → A
Ans: 2
6. Which of the following scheme is used to ensure atomicity of transactions in database systems
1. Time-stamp based Protocol
2. Log File
3. Two-phase Locking
4. None of these
Ans: 2
7. In SQL, which command is used to display data from two or multiple tables
1. LIST
2. SELECT
3. SHOW
4. MULTIPLY
Ans: 2
8. The two-phase locking protocol ensures
1. Both serializability and recoverabilty
2. Serializability only
3. Recoverability only
4. None of these
Ans: 2
9. Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R.
1. It will result in a deadlock situation
2. It will immediately be rejected
3. It will immediately be granted
4. It will be granted as soon as it is released by A
Ans: 3
10. Which is an invalid transactional ACID property
1. Atomicity
2. Consistency
3. Isolation
4. Duality
Ans: 4
11. In which normal form decomposition of a relationship is lossless join but may not be dependency preserving
1. PJNF
2. BCNF
3. 3NF
4. all of these
Ans: 2
12. If every non-key attribute is fully functionally dependent on the primary key, then the relation will be in
1. First normal form
2. Second normal form
3. Third normal form
4. Fourth normal form
Ans: 2
13. Which is the correct hierarchy of a database?
1. rows->tablespace->table->database
2. rows->table->tablespace->database
3. database->table->tablespace->rows
4. None of these
Ans: 2
14. Tables derived from the ER-Diagram
1. Are totally normalised
2. Can be further denormalised
3. May have multi-valued attributes
4. Are always in 1NF
Ans: 4
15. The relationship of DEPARTMENT to the EMPLOYEES is a
1. One-to-one relationship
2. One-to-many relationship
3. Many-to-many relationship
4. Many-to-one relationship
Ans: 2
16. Which is the correct property of B Tree
1. Number of keys in each node must be equal number of its children nodes
2. Number of keys in each node must be one less than the number of its children nodes
3. Number of keys in each node must be greater than number of its children nodes
4. Number of keys in each node must be half number of its children nodes
Ans: 2
17. Consider a schema R(A, B, C, D) and functional dependencies A→B and C→D.
Then the decomposition of R into R1(AB) and R2(CD) is
1. dependency preserving and lossless join
2. lossless join but not dependency preserving
3. dependency preserving but not lossless join
4. not dependency preserving and not lossless join
Ans: 3
18. What is the valid sequence of processing a DBMS query?
1. SQL statement->parse->optimize->generate execution
2. SQL statement->validate->parse->optimize->generate execution
3. SQL statement->parse->validate->optimize->generate execution
4. None of these
Ans: 3
19. The SQL statement select * from R, Q is equivalent to
1. Select * from R natural join Q
2. Select * from R cross join Q
3. Select * from R union join Q
4. Select * from R inner join Q
Ans: 2
20. Which is a DCL command?
1. Grant
2. Commit
3. Update
4. Rollback
Ans: 1
21. Which one will generate an error?
1. SELECT * FROM emp WHERE empid = 493945;
2. SELECT empid FROM emp WHERE empid= 493945;
3. SELECT empid FROM emp;
4. SELECT empid WHERE empid = 56949 AND lastname = ‘SMITH’;
Ans: 4
22. Which statement is incorrect
1. A weak entity doesn't have a primary key
2. A relation can have multiple number of unique keys
3. Relational algebra is more expressive than relational calculus
4. In a relation ordering of tuples is not substantial
Ans: 3
23. Which is correct syntax of ALTER TABLE?
1. ALTER TABLE Customer-details DROP (Contact_Phone);
2. ALTER TABLE Customer-Details ADD Contact_Phone Char (10);
3. ALTER TABLE Customer-details MODIFY Contact_Phone Char (12);
4. All of these
Ans: 4
24. Which is correct statement for Triggers?
1. To maintain views
2. To execute action automatically whenever an event occurs.
3. To implement business rules
4. All of these
Ans: 4
25. Which is NOT the purpose of normalization of schema
1. Conversion of data to a canonical form to promote schema integration
2. Reduction of the number of anomalies that can occur during inserts, deletes, and updates
3. Elimination of redundant data stored in the database
4. none of these
Ans: 1
26. The transactional concurrency leads to increase
1. Integrity
2. Consistency
3. Mutual execution
4. Throughput
Ans: 4
27. The database schema is written in
1. Data Definition Language
2. Data Manipulation Language
3. Data Control Language
4. Tool Command Language
Ans: 1
28. Which is the correct method to physically store the records in a specified order according to the key field in each record
1. Hash
2. Direct
3. Sequential
4. All of these
Ans: 1
29. The example of derived attribute is
1. Name if age is given as other attribute
2. Age if date of birth is given as other attribute
3. 1 and 2 both
4. None of these
Ans: 2
30. This operation is used when a user is interested in only certain columns of a table
1. Selection
2. Union
3. Join
4. Projection
Ans: 4
31. Which level of database is closest to the user
1. Physical
2. Conceptual
3. Internal
4. External or View based
Ans: 4
32. Which is correct statement for updating in a table instructor salary by 10 percentages?
1. Update instructor Set salary=salary*1.10;
2. Update instructor Set salary=110;
3. Update instructor where salary=salary*1.10;
1. Update instructor In salary=salary*1.10;
Ans: 1
33. In a relational algebra, the Cartesian product is
1. Unary operator
2. Binary operator
3. Ternary operator
4. None of these
Ans: 2
34. In a stored procedure, when specifying a string parameter you should use which one of these data types?
1. CHAR
2. VARCHAR2
3. TEXT
4. REAL
Ans: 2
35. Which statement correctly differentiates between the Relational database (RDB) and Object Oriented database (OODB) models
1. OODB supports multiple objects in the same database while RDB only supports a single table per database
2. OODB incorporates methods in which the definition of the data structure is given, while RDB does not
3. RDB allows the definition of the relationships between the different tables, while OODB does not allow the relationships to be defined between objects
4. RDB supports indexes, while OODB does not support indexes
Ans: 2
36. An advantage of packet switching is
1. Better utilization of network links
2. Lower propagation delay
3. Less electro-magnetic interference
4. Delay guarantees in voice communications
Ans: 1
37. The X.25 protocol encapsulates the following layers
1. Data Link Layer
2. Network Layer
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of these
Ans: 3
38. This layer in the OSI model handles terminal emulation
1. Session
2. Presentation
3. Transport
4. Application
Ans: 4
39. Which is untrue for the RPC
1. Allow programs to call procedures located on other machines
2. Avoids the overhead of multiple system calls
3. Allows communication through global variables
4. Provides programmers with a familiar procedural interface
Ans: 3
40. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
1. 0 to 63
2. 1 to 63
3. 0 to 64
4. 1 to 64
Ans: 1
41. The size of the congestion Window in the slow start phase of the TCP congestion control algorithm
1. Does not increase
2. Increases linearly
3. Increases quadratically
4. Increases exponentially
Ans: 4
42. A television broadcast is an example of _______ transmission.
1. Half-duplex
2. Full-duplex
3. Simplex
4. Automatic
Ans: 3
43. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for 10 data packets sent, _______ acknowledgments are needed.
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 20
Ans: 2
44. Number of bit used for host id in IPv4 Class A addressing is
1. 8 bits
2. 12 bits
3. 16 bits
4. 24 bits
Ans: 4
45. When data and acknowledgment are sent on the same frame, this is called
1. piggybacking
2. backpacking
3. piggypacking
4. a good idea
Ans: 1
46. 10Base2 and 10Base5 have different______________
1. signal band types
2. fields on the 802.3 frame
3. maximum segment lengths
4. maximum data rates
Ans: 3
47. Which IPv4 address class has few Net-ID per network?
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
Ans: 1
48. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is_________
1. equal to the remainder at the sender
2. zero
3. nonzero
4. the quotient at the sender
Ans: 2
49. Which is correct statement for need of Time to Live (TTL) field in an IP datagram?
1. It can be used to prioritize packets
2. It can be used to reduce delays
3. It can be used to optimize throughput
4. It can be used to prevent packet looping
Ans: 4
50. A timer is set when__________is sent out
1. a packet
2. an ACK
3. a NAK
4. all of these
Ans: 1
51. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the_________frame.
1. management
2. supervisory
3. information
4. none of the these
Ans: 2
52. The purpose of Reverse ARP on a network is to find the ________given the___________.
1. Internet address, domain name
2. Internet address, netid
3. Internet address, station MAC address
4. Station MAC address, Intemet address
Ans: 3
53. Which statement is correct for SQL?
1. SQL stands for Standard Query language
2. SQL is procedural language
3. SQL is non-procedural language
4. None of these
Ans: 3
54. Which of the following statement is correct for ER and relational models?
1. An attribute of an entity can be composite
2. An attribute of an entity can have more than one value
3. In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL value
4. All of these
Ans: 4
55. In ER diagram a relationship is represented through.
1. Rectangle
2. Diamond
3. Oval
4. Line
Ans: 2
56. Meta data is the
1. Collection of data
2. Data about data
3. Medical data
4. None of these
Ans: 2
57. Which is containing a list of blocks that have been updated in the database buffer?
1. Latches
2. Swap space
3. Dirty block
4. All of these
Ans: 3
58. Which command is used to delete all the tuples of a table along with structure?
1. Truncate
2. Drop
3. Delete
4. Alter
Ans: 2
59. Which one of the join operation does not preserve non matched tuples?
1. Natural join
2. Left outer join
3. Right outer join
4. Inner join
Ans: 4
60. The IEEE standard for Token Bus Protocol is
1. IEEE 802.2
2. IEEE 802.3
3. IEEE 802.4
4. IEEE 802.5
Ans: 3
61. Which protocol is not correspond to Application layer
1. DNS
2. FTP
3. SMTP
4. RPC
Ans: 4
62. Which protocol is contention based protocol
1. CSMA
2. Ethernet
3. ALOHA
4. All of these
Ans: 4
63. The Hamming code is used to perform
1. Error detection
2. Error correction
3. Error encapsulation
4. both (1) and (2)
Ans: 4
64. Which layer of TCP/IP is responsible for end to end delivery of entire message in a network?
1. Application layer
2. Presentation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Network layer
Ans: 3
65. The process that dynamically assigns an IP address to a network device is called?
1. DNS
2. DHCP
3. NAT
4. MAC
Ans: 2
66. The modem is used to converts
1. Analog , Digital
2. Digital, Analog
3. PSK,FSK
4. Both (1) and (2)
Ans: 4
67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect
1. Application layer- Error detection
2. Transport layer- Reliability
3. Network layer- Address Resolution
4. Data link layer- Framing
Ans: 1
68. Which of the following is NOT a basic element of Ethernet?
1. An Ethernet packet or frame
2. Media access control protocols
3. A router
4. Physical media used to carry the signal
Ans: 3
69. Maximum throughput of Pure Aloha is
1. 36.8% of a given load
2. 26.8% of a given load
3. 18.4% of a given load
4. 46.6% of a given load
Ans: 3
70. Identify the class of IPv4 address 191.1.2.3.
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
Ans: 2
71. Connection less service in packet switched networks is most suitable for
1. File transfer operation
2. Electronic Mail
3. DNS queries
4. HTTP
Ans: 3
72. Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision-free protocol?
1. IEEE 802.3
2. IEEE 802.4
3. IEEE 802.5
4. Both (2) and (3)
Ans: 4
73. Ideally the maximum segment length that can be supported by the UTP cable is
1. 100 meters
2. 200 meters
3. 500 meters
4. 600 meters
Ans: 1
74. Which is a correct statement related to IPv6 addressing
1. IPv6 increases the size of the IP address from 32 to 128 bits
2. IPv6 has 40-byte fixed-length header
3. In addition to unicast and multicast addresses IPv6 support anycast addressing
4. All of these
Ans: 4
75. The IEEE 802.3 LAN standards support
1. IEEE 802.3u
2. Fast Ethernet 100BASE-TX
3. Ethernet 10BASE-T
4. All of these
Ans: 4
76. For an ALOHA system using a 9600-bps channel for sending 120-bit-long packets the possible throughput is
1. 10 pkts per second
2. 14 pkts per second
3. 20 pkts per second
4. 24 pkts per second
Ans: 2
77. Which of the following is the bit oriented protocol
1. Link Access Protocol Balanced (LAPB)
2. Synchronous Data link Control Protocol (SDLC)
3. Link Access Protocol for D channel (LAP-D)
4. All of these
Ans: 4
78. Which is the correct statement related to Ethernet based network
1. Ethernet packet should be at least 64 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1500 bytes
2. Ethernet packet should be at least 32 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1024 bytes
3. Ethernet packet should be at least 16 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 64 bytes
4. Ethernet packet should be at least 48 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1482 bytes
Ans: 1
79. The correct order of steps for a system development life cycle is
1. Analysis, Planning, design, test, document, implement, evaluate.
2. Planning, Analysis, implement, design, document, test, evaluate.
3. Planning, Analysis, design, document, implement, test, evaluate.
4. Analysis, Planning, design, implement, evaluate, test, document.
Ans: 3
80. Translating a required task for system development into a series of commands that a computer will be able to understand is
1. Project design
2. Installation
3. Programming
4. Systems analysis
Ans: 3
81. Designers create system prototypes to
1. make the programmers understand how the system will function.
2. make the user visualize how the system will look like when it is developed and receive feedback
3. give a demo of the system to his administrating system manager to show as report
4. make both programmers and user understands how the system will look and function
Ans: 4
82. Dotted arrows in a DFD are used to represent
1. Data flow
2. Control flow
3. Result
4. Simple connector
Ans: 2
83. A data dictionary has consolidated list of data required for i. Documenting ii. Input form designing iii. Temporarily stored items
(i) and (ii)
(i),(ii) and (iii)
(i) and (iii)
None of the these
Ans: 2
84. The data which is eligible for record keeping during maintenance
1. source statements added by the program change
2. number of machine code instructions
3. number of processing failures associated with the runs
4. All of these
Ans: 4
85. In the model of total effort expended in maintenance M = a + K(b-c), a represents
1. an empirical constant
2. productive effort
3. complexity attributed to the lack of good design and documentation
4. measure of the familiarity with the software
Ans: 2
86. Debugging is
1. creating program code.
2. creating the bugs in the program for testing
3. finding and correcting errors in the program code.
4. creating the algorithm.
Ans: 3
87. Which statement is correct about of testing
1. It is done only for customer satisfaction that the product is working properly and is optional step.
2. It is a problem statement which lists specific inputs that are typically expected to be entered by the user and precise output values that a perfect program would return for those input values
3. It is finalized when the coding is completed
4. All of these
Ans: 2
88. The primary objective of system implementation is
i. to build a system prototype
ii. to train users to operate the system
iii. to implement designed system using computers
iv. write programs, create databases and test with live data
1. i, iii
2. i, ii, iii
3. ii ,iii
4. iii, iv
Ans: 4
89. Which design is perfect for long use, maintainability and up-gradation
1. use good software tools
2. use the best hardware available
3. design the system in independent modules
4. Create versions of the program frequently
Ans: 3
90. The system analyst is required to perform the task(s) include i. defining and prioritizing information requirement of an organization ii. gathering data, facts and opinions of users in an organization iii. drawing up specifications of the system for an organization iv. designing, coding and evaluating the system
1. i and ii
2. i, ii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: 3
91. Which of the following is not the primary design objective
1. Cost
2. Reusability
3. Understandable code for user
4. Security
Ans: 3
92. A system when made of several discrete components is called
1. Top-down
2. Bottom up
3. Modular
4. Linear
Ans: 3
93. Which of the following is true for cohesion and coupling
1. Coupling taken place between multiple modules whereas cohesion is the strength of various elements inside a module
2. A good design must have very high cohesion
3. A good design must have very low coupling
4. All of these
Ans: 4
94. Which of the following is not advantage of structured design
1. Critical interfaces are designed first
2. Controls for upgrades are very easy and low cost
3. Early versions of design can give pre-review of system
4. Real life systems can be easily modeled
Ans: 4
95. In IPO charts P stands for
1. Program
2. Process
3. Publish
4. Presumption
Ans: 2
96. Which is not a reason to consult user while designing of structured walk
1. Probability of success improves with involvement of user
2. Feedback is received which is very important
3. User and programmer can communicate to decide the price of the software
4. User can be trained and made understood about system
Ans: 3
97. The correct order of input form design stages is i. Determining the contents of the input ii. Choosing appropriate input device iii. Identify the inputs required by the system iv. Designing forms for input
1. iii-i-ii-iv
2. i-iii-ii-iv
3. i-iii-iv-ii
4. iii-i-iv-ii
Ans: 1
98. From the following which is not the activity of software maintenance
1. corrective maintenance
2. adaptive maintenance: modifies software to properly interface with a changing environment
3. preventive maintenance
4. reverse engineering
Ans: 4
99. Correct order of stages of testing
1. Unit, integration, system, regression, acceptance
2. System, regression, unit, integration, acceptance
3. Unit, system, regression, integration, acceptance
4. System, integration, unit, acceptance, regression
Ans: 1
100. Organizational chart is an example of
1. IPO
2. HIPO
3. Step chart
4. Process chart
Ans: 2
1. management
2. supervisory
3. information
4. none of the these
Ans: 2
52. The purpose of Reverse ARP on a network is to find the ________given the___________.
1. Internet address, domain name
2. Internet address, netid
3. Internet address, station MAC address
4. Station MAC address, Intemet address
Ans: 3
53. Which statement is correct for SQL?
1. SQL stands for Standard Query language
2. SQL is procedural language
3. SQL is non-procedural language
4. None of these
Ans: 3
54. Which of the following statement is correct for ER and relational models?
1. An attribute of an entity can be composite
2. An attribute of an entity can have more than one value
3. In a row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL value
4. All of these
Ans: 4
55. In ER diagram a relationship is represented through.
1. Rectangle
2. Diamond
3. Oval
4. Line
Ans: 2
56. Meta data is the
1. Collection of data
2. Data about data
3. Medical data
4. None of these
Ans: 2
57. Which is containing a list of blocks that have been updated in the database buffer?
1. Latches
2. Swap space
3. Dirty block
4. All of these
Ans: 3
58. Which command is used to delete all the tuples of a table along with structure?
1. Truncate
2. Drop
3. Delete
4. Alter
Ans: 2
59. Which one of the join operation does not preserve non matched tuples?
1. Natural join
2. Left outer join
3. Right outer join
4. Inner join
Ans: 4
60. The IEEE standard for Token Bus Protocol is
1. IEEE 802.2
2. IEEE 802.3
3. IEEE 802.4
4. IEEE 802.5
Ans: 3
61. Which protocol is not correspond to Application layer
1. DNS
2. FTP
3. SMTP
4. RPC
Ans: 4
62. Which protocol is contention based protocol
1. CSMA
2. Ethernet
3. ALOHA
4. All of these
Ans: 4
63. The Hamming code is used to perform
1. Error detection
2. Error correction
3. Error encapsulation
4. both (1) and (2)
Ans: 4
64. Which layer of TCP/IP is responsible for end to end delivery of entire message in a network?
1. Application layer
2. Presentation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Network layer
Ans: 3
65. The process that dynamically assigns an IP address to a network device is called?
1. DNS
2. DHCP
3. NAT
4. MAC
Ans: 2
66. The modem is used to converts
1. Analog , Digital
2. Digital, Analog
3. PSK,FSK
4. Both (1) and (2)
Ans: 4
67. Which of the following pairs is incorrect
1. Application layer- Error detection
2. Transport layer- Reliability
3. Network layer- Address Resolution
4. Data link layer- Framing
Ans: 1
68. Which of the following is NOT a basic element of Ethernet?
1. An Ethernet packet or frame
2. Media access control protocols
3. A router
4. Physical media used to carry the signal
Ans: 3
69. Maximum throughput of Pure Aloha is
1. 36.8% of a given load
2. 26.8% of a given load
3. 18.4% of a given load
4. 46.6% of a given load
Ans: 3
70. Identify the class of IPv4 address 191.1.2.3.
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
Ans: 2
71. Connection less service in packet switched networks is most suitable for
1. File transfer operation
2. Electronic Mail
3. DNS queries
4. HTTP
Ans: 3
72. Which Project 802 standard provides for a collision-free protocol?
1. IEEE 802.3
2. IEEE 802.4
3. IEEE 802.5
4. Both (2) and (3)
Ans: 4
73. Ideally the maximum segment length that can be supported by the UTP cable is
1. 100 meters
2. 200 meters
3. 500 meters
4. 600 meters
Ans: 1
74. Which is a correct statement related to IPv6 addressing
1. IPv6 increases the size of the IP address from 32 to 128 bits
2. IPv6 has 40-byte fixed-length header
3. In addition to unicast and multicast addresses IPv6 support anycast addressing
4. All of these
Ans: 4
75. The IEEE 802.3 LAN standards support
1. IEEE 802.3u
2. Fast Ethernet 100BASE-TX
3. Ethernet 10BASE-T
4. All of these
Ans: 4
76. For an ALOHA system using a 9600-bps channel for sending 120-bit-long packets the possible throughput is
1. 10 pkts per second
2. 14 pkts per second
3. 20 pkts per second
4. 24 pkts per second
Ans: 2
77. Which of the following is the bit oriented protocol
1. Link Access Protocol Balanced (LAPB)
2. Synchronous Data link Control Protocol (SDLC)
3. Link Access Protocol for D channel (LAP-D)
4. All of these
Ans: 4
78. Which is the correct statement related to Ethernet based network
1. Ethernet packet should be at least 64 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1500 bytes
2. Ethernet packet should be at least 32 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1024 bytes
3. Ethernet packet should be at least 16 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 64 bytes
4. Ethernet packet should be at least 48 bytes long for longest allowed segment and Max packet size can be 1482 bytes
Ans: 1
79. The correct order of steps for a system development life cycle is
1. Analysis, Planning, design, test, document, implement, evaluate.
2. Planning, Analysis, implement, design, document, test, evaluate.
3. Planning, Analysis, design, document, implement, test, evaluate.
4. Analysis, Planning, design, implement, evaluate, test, document.
Ans: 3
80. Translating a required task for system development into a series of commands that a computer will be able to understand is
1. Project design
2. Installation
3. Programming
4. Systems analysis
Ans: 3
81. Designers create system prototypes to
1. make the programmers understand how the system will function.
2. make the user visualize how the system will look like when it is developed and receive feedback
3. give a demo of the system to his administrating system manager to show as report
4. make both programmers and user understands how the system will look and function
Ans: 4
82. Dotted arrows in a DFD are used to represent
1. Data flow
2. Control flow
3. Result
4. Simple connector
Ans: 2
83. A data dictionary has consolidated list of data required for i. Documenting ii. Input form designing iii. Temporarily stored items
(i) and (ii)
(i),(ii) and (iii)
(i) and (iii)
None of the these
Ans: 2
84. The data which is eligible for record keeping during maintenance
1. source statements added by the program change
2. number of machine code instructions
3. number of processing failures associated with the runs
4. All of these
Ans: 4
85. In the model of total effort expended in maintenance M = a + K(b-c), a represents
1. an empirical constant
2. productive effort
3. complexity attributed to the lack of good design and documentation
4. measure of the familiarity with the software
Ans: 2
86. Debugging is
1. creating program code.
2. creating the bugs in the program for testing
3. finding and correcting errors in the program code.
4. creating the algorithm.
Ans: 3
87. Which statement is correct about of testing
1. It is done only for customer satisfaction that the product is working properly and is optional step.
2. It is a problem statement which lists specific inputs that are typically expected to be entered by the user and precise output values that a perfect program would return for those input values
3. It is finalized when the coding is completed
4. All of these
Ans: 2
88. The primary objective of system implementation is
i. to build a system prototype
ii. to train users to operate the system
iii. to implement designed system using computers
iv. write programs, create databases and test with live data
1. i, iii
2. i, ii, iii
3. ii ,iii
4. iii, iv
Ans: 4
89. Which design is perfect for long use, maintainability and up-gradation
1. use good software tools
2. use the best hardware available
3. design the system in independent modules
4. Create versions of the program frequently
Ans: 3
90. The system analyst is required to perform the task(s) include i. defining and prioritizing information requirement of an organization ii. gathering data, facts and opinions of users in an organization iii. drawing up specifications of the system for an organization iv. designing, coding and evaluating the system
1. i and ii
2. i, ii and iv
3. i, ii and iii
4. i, ii, iii and iv
Ans: 3
91. Which of the following is not the primary design objective
1. Cost
2. Reusability
3. Understandable code for user
4. Security
Ans: 3
92. A system when made of several discrete components is called
1. Top-down
2. Bottom up
3. Modular
4. Linear
Ans: 3
93. Which of the following is true for cohesion and coupling
1. Coupling taken place between multiple modules whereas cohesion is the strength of various elements inside a module
2. A good design must have very high cohesion
3. A good design must have very low coupling
4. All of these
Ans: 4
94. Which of the following is not advantage of structured design
1. Critical interfaces are designed first
2. Controls for upgrades are very easy and low cost
3. Early versions of design can give pre-review of system
4. Real life systems can be easily modeled
Ans: 4
95. In IPO charts P stands for
1. Program
2. Process
3. Publish
4. Presumption
Ans: 2
96. Which is not a reason to consult user while designing of structured walk
1. Probability of success improves with involvement of user
2. Feedback is received which is very important
3. User and programmer can communicate to decide the price of the software
4. User can be trained and made understood about system
Ans: 3
97. The correct order of input form design stages is i. Determining the contents of the input ii. Choosing appropriate input device iii. Identify the inputs required by the system iv. Designing forms for input
1. iii-i-ii-iv
2. i-iii-ii-iv
3. i-iii-iv-ii
4. iii-i-iv-ii
Ans: 1
98. From the following which is not the activity of software maintenance
1. corrective maintenance
2. adaptive maintenance: modifies software to properly interface with a changing environment
3. preventive maintenance
4. reverse engineering
Ans: 4
99. Correct order of stages of testing
1. Unit, integration, system, regression, acceptance
2. System, regression, unit, integration, acceptance
3. Unit, system, regression, integration, acceptance
4. System, integration, unit, acceptance, regression
Ans: 1
100. Organizational chart is an example of
1. IPO
2. HIPO
3. Step chart
4. Process chart
Ans: 2