PATHOLOGY- PAGE 4
PATHOLOGY MCQs- PAGE 4
1. Sputum from an asthma patient may show:
(A) Numerous eosinophils (B) Curschmanns spirals (C) Charcot-Leyden crystals (D) All of the above
Ans: D
2. What type of RBC are seen in chronic renal failure?
(A) Microcytic (B) Macrocytic (C) Normocytic (D) None of the above
Ans: C
3. Heinz bodies are observed in all except:
(A) Exposure to oxidizing drugs (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Unstable hemoglobin disease (D) Megaloblastic anemia
Ans: D
4. In G6PD deficiency which cells are more prone for hemolysis?
(A) Older red cells (B) Young red cells (C) Reticulocytes (D) All are susceptible
Ans: A
5. Donath Landsteiner antibody is seen in:
(A) PNH (B) Waldenstrom’smacroglobulinemia (C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (D) Malaria
Ans: C
6. Autosplenectomy is seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Thalassemia major
Ans: C
7. Hair on end appearance on skull X-ray is seen in:
(A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Thalessemia major (C) Thalessemia minor (D) All of the above
Ans: B
8. Pappenheimer body is seen in:
(A) Sideroblast (B) Siderocyte (C) Reticulocyte (D) Bite cells
Ans: B
9. Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by which cytokine:
(A) IL-2 (B) IFN-Ò (C) TNF- alpha (D) TGF-beta
Ans: B
10. All of the following are true about type I HLA except?
(A) Present on APC (B) Activate cytotoxic T cell and kill virus infected cell (C) Present on nucleated cell (D) First line defense mechanism
Ans: D
11. AFP and CEA both rise in:
(A) Testicular carcinoma (B) Hepatic carcinoma (C) Renal cell carcinoma (D) Germ cell tumor of ovary
Ans: B
12. MIC-2 is a marker of:
(A) Ewing sarcoma (B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C) Mantle cell lymphoma (D) All of above
Ans: A
13. All are tumors arising from metaphysis except:
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Osteochondroma (C) Osteoid osteoma (D) Osteoclastoma
Ans: D
14. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for Myasthenia gravis:
(A) Type I hypersensitivity (B) Type II hypersensitivity (C) Type III hypersensitivity (D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Ans: B
15. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in following except:
(A) Arthus phenomenon (B) Contact dermatitis (C) Tuberculin test (D) Graft vs host reaction
Ans: A
16. Which of these is used as a marker in mesothelioma?
(A) Calretinin (B) TTF-1 (C) CK-5/6 (D) Glypican
Ans: A
17. Transformed lymphocytes in Infectious Mononucleosis are
(A) B cells (B) Monocytes (C) CD4 cells (D) CD8 cells
Ans: D
18. Tumor most commonly associated with H pylori:
(A) Maltoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) None of the above
Ans: A
19. Not true about GIST:
(A) Stomach is the most common site (B) High propensity of malignant change
(C) Associated with c-KIT mutation (D) Histology shows epitheloid and spindle shaped cells
Ans: B
20. Giant hypertrophy of gastric mucosa is seen in:
(A) Peptic ulceration (B) Carcinoma stomach (C) Menetrier’s disease (D) Leiomyosarcoma
Ans: C
21. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia is due to following viral infection:
(A) CMV (B) Parvovirus B19 (C) HSV (D) EBV
Ans: B
22. Whipple’s disease is characterized by:
(A) Foamy macrophages (B) Villous atrophy (C) Papillary projections (D) Lymphoplasmacyticinfiltrtion
Ans: A
23. In carcinoma of unknown primary, if the tissue marker CDX-2 is positive, it indicates:
(A) Bladder cancer (B) Gastrointestinal cancer (C) Lung cancer (D) Thyroid cancer
Ans: B
24. True regarding Hirschsprung disease is
(A) Aganglionosis always involves distal rectum (B) Non passage of meconium in first 24 hr after birth
(C) Diagnosis is established by suction rectal biopsy (D) All of the above
Ans: D
25. The most common source of pulmonary embolism is:
(A) Amniotic fluid embolism (B) Renal artery embolism (C) Large veins of lower limb (D) Cardiothoracic surgery
Ans: C
26. DIC is common in which AML?
(A) Monocytic(M5) (B) Promyelocytic (M3) (C) Erythrocytic (M6) (D) Megakaryotic (M7)
Ans: B
27. Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are:
(A) Myocardial cells (B) Neurons (C) Hepatocytes (D) Renal tubular epithelial cells
Ans: B
28. False about apoptosis:
(A) Inflammation present (B) Program cell death (C) Normal physiology (D) Genetically determined by a cell
Ans: A
29. True about lionization of X chromosome:
(A) Inactivation of X chromosome only in somatic cell (B) Inactivation of X chromosome only in germ cell
(C) Inactivation of X chromosome in somatic and germ cell both (D) Maximum number of Barr body is equal to X chromosome
Ans: A
30. Stellate granuloma is seen in:
(A) Cat scratch disease (B) Sarcoidosis (C) LGV (D) Histoplasmosis
Ans: A
31. Hallmark of chronic inflammation:
(A) Increased vascular permeability (B) Vasodilation (C) Granulomas (D) Tissue destruction
Ans: D
32. Cytokine involved in epithelial tissue migration and granulation tissue formation in healing:
(A) TGF-bb bb b (B) IL-10 (C) IL-4 (D) INF-Ò
Ans: A
33. Wound contraction occurs by the action of:
(A) Macrophages (B) Myofibroblasts (C) Endothelial cells (D) Fibroblast
Ans: B
34. Heart failure cells are:
(A) Foam cells (B) Lipid laden macrophages (C) Hemosiderin laden macrophages (D) Type I pneumocytes
Ans: C
35. Causative agent of Farmer’s lung is:
(A) Thermophilusactinomycetes (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicilliumglabrum (D) Rhizopus
Ans: A
36. Hypoglycemia occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in:
(A) Bronchogenic carcinoma (B) CA pancreas (C) Fibrosarcoma (D) Renal cell carcinoma
Ans: C
37. Which of the following statements about neuroblastoma is not true:
(A) Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood (B) >50% present with metastasis at the time of diagnosis
(C) Lung metastasis are common (D) Often encase aorta and its branches at the time of diagnosis
Ans: C
38. In infant, bone marrow biopsy is done from?
(A) Tibia (B) Sternum (C) Posterior superior iliac spine (D) Iliac crest
Ans: A
39. True about acute lymphoid leukemia:
(A) tdT positive (B) Gamma globulins (C) t(8,14) (D) Insidious onset
Ans: A
40. Stain used for diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma:
(A) Myeloperoxidase (B) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (C) Nonspecific esterase (D) Neuron specific enolase
Ans: A
41. Spur cells are seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Liver disease (D) Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: C
42. Find the false statement regarding megaloblastic anemia:
(A) Hypersegmented neutrophils are the earliest manifestation (B) Reticulocyte count decreased
(C) Hypercellular bone marrow (D) MCHC is increased
Ans: D
43. Most sensitive marker in iron deficiency anemia:
(A) TIBC (B) Serum ferritin (C) Serum iron (D) Serum transferring saturation
Ans: B
44. Punctate basophilia on peripheral smear examination is observed in all except:
(A) Lead poisoning (B) Thalassemia (C) Spherocytosis (D) Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: C
45. What abnormalities will be present in a patient having deficiency of Von Willebrand factor?
(A) Increased apTT, Increased PT (B) Decreased PT, Increased apt
(C) Normal PT, Normal apTT (D) Normal PT, Increased aPTT
Ans: D
46. Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause:
(A) Only necrosis (B) Only apoptosis (C) Both necrosis and apoptosis (D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. Metastatic calcification is seen in all except:
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Breast carcinoma (C) Atherosclerosis (D) Renal failure
Ans: C
48. The enzyme that protects brain from free radical injury:
(A) Superoxide dismutase (B) Catalase (C) Glutathione peroxidase (D) Monoamine oxidase
Ans: A
49. Severe infection will increase if absolute neutrophil count will become?
(A) <500 (B) Less than 800 (C) Less than 1000 (D) Less than 2000
Ans: A
50. Permanent tissue is:
(A) Heart (B) Liver (C) Kidney (D) Skeletal muscle
Ans: D
(A) Numerous eosinophils (B) Curschmanns spirals (C) Charcot-Leyden crystals (D) All of the above
Ans: D
2. What type of RBC are seen in chronic renal failure?
(A) Microcytic (B) Macrocytic (C) Normocytic (D) None of the above
Ans: C
3. Heinz bodies are observed in all except:
(A) Exposure to oxidizing drugs (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Unstable hemoglobin disease (D) Megaloblastic anemia
Ans: D
4. In G6PD deficiency which cells are more prone for hemolysis?
(A) Older red cells (B) Young red cells (C) Reticulocytes (D) All are susceptible
Ans: A
5. Donath Landsteiner antibody is seen in:
(A) PNH (B) Waldenstrom’smacroglobulinemia (C) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (D) Malaria
Ans: C
6. Autosplenectomy is seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Sickle cell anemia (D) Thalassemia major
Ans: C
7. Hair on end appearance on skull X-ray is seen in:
(A) Sickle cell anemia (B) Thalessemia major (C) Thalessemia minor (D) All of the above
Ans: B
8. Pappenheimer body is seen in:
(A) Sideroblast (B) Siderocyte (C) Reticulocyte (D) Bite cells
Ans: B
9. Macrophages are converted to epitheloid cells by which cytokine:
(A) IL-2 (B) IFN-Ò (C) TNF- alpha (D) TGF-beta
Ans: B
10. All of the following are true about type I HLA except?
(A) Present on APC (B) Activate cytotoxic T cell and kill virus infected cell (C) Present on nucleated cell (D) First line defense mechanism
Ans: D
11. AFP and CEA both rise in:
(A) Testicular carcinoma (B) Hepatic carcinoma (C) Renal cell carcinoma (D) Germ cell tumor of ovary
Ans: B
12. MIC-2 is a marker of:
(A) Ewing sarcoma (B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (C) Mantle cell lymphoma (D) All of above
Ans: A
13. All are tumors arising from metaphysis except:
(A) Osteosarcoma (B) Osteochondroma (C) Osteoid osteoma (D) Osteoclastoma
Ans: D
14. Which of the following immune hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for Myasthenia gravis:
(A) Type I hypersensitivity (B) Type II hypersensitivity (C) Type III hypersensitivity (D) Type IV hypersensitivity
Ans: B
15. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in following except:
(A) Arthus phenomenon (B) Contact dermatitis (C) Tuberculin test (D) Graft vs host reaction
Ans: A
16. Which of these is used as a marker in mesothelioma?
(A) Calretinin (B) TTF-1 (C) CK-5/6 (D) Glypican
Ans: A
17. Transformed lymphocytes in Infectious Mononucleosis are
(A) B cells (B) Monocytes (C) CD4 cells (D) CD8 cells
Ans: D
18. Tumor most commonly associated with H pylori:
(A) Maltoma (B) Adenocarcinoma (C) Squamous cell carcinoma (D) None of the above
Ans: A
19. Not true about GIST:
(A) Stomach is the most common site (B) High propensity of malignant change
(C) Associated with c-KIT mutation (D) Histology shows epitheloid and spindle shaped cells
Ans: B
20. Giant hypertrophy of gastric mucosa is seen in:
(A) Peptic ulceration (B) Carcinoma stomach (C) Menetrier’s disease (D) Leiomyosarcoma
Ans: C
21. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia is due to following viral infection:
(A) CMV (B) Parvovirus B19 (C) HSV (D) EBV
Ans: B
22. Whipple’s disease is characterized by:
(A) Foamy macrophages (B) Villous atrophy (C) Papillary projections (D) Lymphoplasmacyticinfiltrtion
Ans: A
23. In carcinoma of unknown primary, if the tissue marker CDX-2 is positive, it indicates:
(A) Bladder cancer (B) Gastrointestinal cancer (C) Lung cancer (D) Thyroid cancer
Ans: B
24. True regarding Hirschsprung disease is
(A) Aganglionosis always involves distal rectum (B) Non passage of meconium in first 24 hr after birth
(C) Diagnosis is established by suction rectal biopsy (D) All of the above
Ans: D
25. The most common source of pulmonary embolism is:
(A) Amniotic fluid embolism (B) Renal artery embolism (C) Large veins of lower limb (D) Cardiothoracic surgery
Ans: C
26. DIC is common in which AML?
(A) Monocytic(M5) (B) Promyelocytic (M3) (C) Erythrocytic (M6) (D) Megakaryotic (M7)
Ans: B
27. Cells most sensitive to hypoxia are:
(A) Myocardial cells (B) Neurons (C) Hepatocytes (D) Renal tubular epithelial cells
Ans: B
28. False about apoptosis:
(A) Inflammation present (B) Program cell death (C) Normal physiology (D) Genetically determined by a cell
Ans: A
29. True about lionization of X chromosome:
(A) Inactivation of X chromosome only in somatic cell (B) Inactivation of X chromosome only in germ cell
(C) Inactivation of X chromosome in somatic and germ cell both (D) Maximum number of Barr body is equal to X chromosome
Ans: A
30. Stellate granuloma is seen in:
(A) Cat scratch disease (B) Sarcoidosis (C) LGV (D) Histoplasmosis
Ans: A
31. Hallmark of chronic inflammation:
(A) Increased vascular permeability (B) Vasodilation (C) Granulomas (D) Tissue destruction
Ans: D
32. Cytokine involved in epithelial tissue migration and granulation tissue formation in healing:
(A) TGF-bb bb b (B) IL-10 (C) IL-4 (D) INF-Ò
Ans: A
33. Wound contraction occurs by the action of:
(A) Macrophages (B) Myofibroblasts (C) Endothelial cells (D) Fibroblast
Ans: B
34. Heart failure cells are:
(A) Foam cells (B) Lipid laden macrophages (C) Hemosiderin laden macrophages (D) Type I pneumocytes
Ans: C
35. Causative agent of Farmer’s lung is:
(A) Thermophilusactinomycetes (B) Aspergillus (C) Penicilliumglabrum (D) Rhizopus
Ans: A
36. Hypoglycemia occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in:
(A) Bronchogenic carcinoma (B) CA pancreas (C) Fibrosarcoma (D) Renal cell carcinoma
Ans: C
37. Which of the following statements about neuroblastoma is not true:
(A) Most common extracranial solid tumor in childhood (B) >50% present with metastasis at the time of diagnosis
(C) Lung metastasis are common (D) Often encase aorta and its branches at the time of diagnosis
Ans: C
38. In infant, bone marrow biopsy is done from?
(A) Tibia (B) Sternum (C) Posterior superior iliac spine (D) Iliac crest
Ans: A
39. True about acute lymphoid leukemia:
(A) tdT positive (B) Gamma globulins (C) t(8,14) (D) Insidious onset
Ans: A
40. Stain used for diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma:
(A) Myeloperoxidase (B) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (C) Nonspecific esterase (D) Neuron specific enolase
Ans: A
41. Spur cells are seen in:
(A) Hereditary spherocytosis (B) G6PD deficiency (C) Liver disease (D) Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: C
42. Find the false statement regarding megaloblastic anemia:
(A) Hypersegmented neutrophils are the earliest manifestation (B) Reticulocyte count decreased
(C) Hypercellular bone marrow (D) MCHC is increased
Ans: D
43. Most sensitive marker in iron deficiency anemia:
(A) TIBC (B) Serum ferritin (C) Serum iron (D) Serum transferring saturation
Ans: B
44. Punctate basophilia on peripheral smear examination is observed in all except:
(A) Lead poisoning (B) Thalassemia (C) Spherocytosis (D) Sideroblastic anemia
Ans: C
45. What abnormalities will be present in a patient having deficiency of Von Willebrand factor?
(A) Increased apTT, Increased PT (B) Decreased PT, Increased apt
(C) Normal PT, Normal apTT (D) Normal PT, Increased aPTT
Ans: D
46. Chemotherapeutic drugs can cause:
(A) Only necrosis (B) Only apoptosis (C) Both necrosis and apoptosis (D) None of the above
Ans: C
47. Metastatic calcification is seen in all except:
(A) Multiple myeloma (B) Breast carcinoma (C) Atherosclerosis (D) Renal failure
Ans: C
48. The enzyme that protects brain from free radical injury:
(A) Superoxide dismutase (B) Catalase (C) Glutathione peroxidase (D) Monoamine oxidase
Ans: A
49. Severe infection will increase if absolute neutrophil count will become?
(A) <500 (B) Less than 800 (C) Less than 1000 (D) Less than 2000
Ans: A
50. Permanent tissue is:
(A) Heart (B) Liver (C) Kidney (D) Skeletal muscle
Ans: D
51. Transcytosis is:
(A) Transport of fluids and proteins through endothelial cells (B) Migration of neutrophils through endothelial cell
(C) Migration of platelets through endothelial cells (D) Locomotion oriented along chemical gradient
Ans: A
52. A 16 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary?
(A) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries) (B) Mucinous cystadenoma (C) Psamomma bodies (D) Hemmorhagic corpus leuteum
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is X- linked recessive?
(A) Duschene muscular dystrophy (B) Hypophosphatemic rickets (C) Marfans syndrome (D) Downs syndrome
Ans: A
54. The best suited nucleated cell for chromosomal study
(A) Polymorphs (B) Lymphocytes (C) Epithelial cells (D) Langerhan’s cell
Ans: B
55. Real time polymerase chain reaction is done for:
(A) DNA detection only (B) RNA detection only (C) Both RNA and DNA detection (D) Monitoring amplification of target nucleic acid
Ans: D
56. True about ELISA are all, except:
(A) It is most sensitive screening test (B) It can be used for only antibody detection
(C) 96 samples can be tested at a time (D) Takes 2-3 hrs for performing assay
Ans: B
57. Phagocytosis is not done by:
(A) NK cells (B) Histiocytes
(C) Neutrophils (D) Macrophages
Ans: A
58. Which among the following is not an adhesion molecule?
(A) Integrin (B) Selectin (C) Interferon (D) Transferrin
Ans: D
59. Histamine causes all except:
(A) Arteriolar dilatation (B) Increased permeability of venules (C) Constriction of large arteries (D) Platelet aggregation
Ans: D
60. Spectral karyotyping is also known as:
(A) FISH (B) Multicolor FISH (C) Microarray (D) PCR
Ans: B
61. Techniques used for detectinggene mutation is:
(A) Real-time PCR (B) Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (C) DNA sequencing (D) All of the above
Ans: D
62. DNA repair defect is associated with:
(A) Xerodermapigmentosum (B) Icthyosis (C) Angelman syndrome (D) DiGeorge’s syndrome
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Thymus
Ans: B
64. K-RAS proto-oncogene is associated with:
(A) Colon cancer (B) Breast cancer (C) Bladder cancer (D) Melanoma
Ans: A
65. All of the following are angiogenic factors except:
(A) VEGF (B) Platelet activating factor (C) IFNα (D) TGF-β
Ans: C
66. Human papilloma virus is associated with all except:
(A) Oropharyngeal tumors (B) Carcinoma nasopharynx (C) Carcinoma anal canal (D) Carcinoma cervix
Ans: B
67. Inherited cancer syndromes include all except:
(A) Retinoblastoma (B) Neurofibroma (C) Xerodermapigmentosa (D) Familial polyposis coli
Ans: C
68. Malignancy associated with erythropoietin secretion is:
(A) Breast cancer (B) Prostate cancer (C) Small cell lung cancer (D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans: D
69. HMB-45 is positive in:
(A) Small cell carcinoma of lung (B) Adenocarcinoma of lung (C) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung (D) Angiomyolipoma of lung
Ans: D
70. Clover leaf cells are seen in:
(A) Burkitt’s lymphoma (B) Adult T cell leukemia-lymphoma (C) Hairy cell leukemia (D) Mantle cell lymphoma
Ans: B
71. Lethal midline granuloma is:
(A) T cell lymphoma (B) B -cell lymphoma (C) ExtranodalNK/ T cell lymphoma (D) Mycosis fungoids
Ans: C
72. In POEM syndrome E stands for:
(A) Endocrinopathy (B) Edema (C) Eosinophilia (D) Erythema
Ans: A
73. For monitoring warfarin therapy we use
(A) PT (B) CT (C) aPTT (D) PT-INR
Ans: A
74. Elevated D-dimer levels are specific for:
(A) Deep vein thrombosis (B) Pulmonary thromboembolism (C) Systemic embolism (D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Ans: D
75. Onion peeling of renal vessels is seen in:
(A) Benign hypertension (B) Malignant hypertension (C) Diabetic nephropathy (D) SLE
Ans: B
76. Pulseless disease is:
(A) Giant cell arteritis (B) Takayasu arteritis (C) Kawasaki disease (D) Polyarteritisnodosa(PAN)
Ans: B
77. Spontaneous regression can occur with:
(A) Cavernous hemagioma (B) Strawberry angioma (C) Nevus flemes (D) None of above
Ans: B
78. Irreversible change in ischemia of heart occurs in?
(A) 10 min (B) 30 min (C) 60 min (D) 90 min
Ans: B
79. The following are true regarding hyaline membrane disease except:
(A) Basic abnormality is deficiency of surfactant (B) Prenatal diagnosis by low amniotic fluid L/S ratio
(C) Intratracheal surfactant helps (D) Occurs in babies born post-dates
Ans: D
80. True about miliary tuberculosis:
(A) Occur primarily due to hematogenous spread (B) Miliary lesion is generally of size 1-2mm
(C) Onset is generally acute (D) Sputum smear microscopy is negative in 80% of cases
Ans: C
81. Subepidermal bullae are seen in all except:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis (C) Linear IgA bullous dermatosis (D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Ans: D
82. Premalignant lesion is:
(A) Actinic keratosis (B) Seborrheic keratosis (C) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (D) All of the above
Ans: A
83. CD 34 positivity is seen in:
(A) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (B) Neurofibroma (C) Dermatofibroma (D) Myofibroma
Ans: A
84. Cafe au lait lesions are seen in:
(A) Neurilemmoma (B) Neurofibromatosis (C) Neuroma (D) Neurothekeoma
Ans: B
85. Special stain for mast cell is:
(A) Giemsa (B) Toluidine blue (C) Chloracetate esterase (D) All of the above
Ans: D
86. Fascicular pattern is seen in following tumors except:
(A) Leiomyosarcoma (B) Synovial sarcoma (C) Fibromatosis (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: D
87. Soft tissue tumors showing myxoid change are all except:
(A) Neurofibroma (B) Liposarcoma (C) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (D) Synovial sarcoma
Ans: D
88. Zellballen pattern is seen in:
(A) Paraganglioma (B) Pheochromocytoma (C) Carotid body tumor (D) All of the above
Ans: D
89. Palisading pattern is seen in all except:
(A) Schwannoma (B) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (C) Leiomyosarcoma (D) Fibrosarcoma
Ans: D
90. Primary biliary cirrhosis is positive for:
(A) ANCA (B) Anti-mitochondrial antibody (C) Anti-nuclear antibody (D) Anti-microsomal antibody
Ans: B
91. True statements about aa aa a1-anti-trypsin deficiency are all, except:
(A) Autosomal dominant disease (B) Emphysema (C) Fibrosis of portal tract (D) Diastase resistant PAS positive hepatocytes
Ans: A
92. True about prehepatic jaundice is all except:
(A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (B) Increased urobilinogen
(C) Raised alkaline phosphatase (D) Absent bile salts/ bile pigments in urine
Ans: C
93. AST/ ALT ratio >2.0 is highly suggestive of:
(A) Alcoholic hepatitis (B) Acute viral hepatitis (C) Cirrhosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
94. Ziehl-Neelsen stain sputum smear is positive if number of tuberculous bacilli in sputum is:
(A) 500-1000/ml (B) 1000-3000/ml (C) 3000-5000/ml (D) 5000-10,000/ml
Ans: D
95. Colon carcinogenesis by adenoma-carcinoma sequence is associated with all except:
(A) APC (B) k-RAS (C) β-catenin (D) Mismatch repair
Ans: D
96. Minimum number of polyps necessary for a diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis is:
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D) 100
Ans: D
97. Budd-chiari syndrome is characterized by all except:
(A) Hepatic veno-occlusive disease (B) Hepatomegaly (C) Portal vein obstruction (D) IVC obstruction
Ans: C
98. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by:
(A) IgM anti-HBcAb (B) HBeAg (C) IgG anti-HBcAb (D) Core antigen
Ans: A
99. Chronic Active Hepatitis is most reliably distinguished from chronic persistent hepatitis by the presence of:
(A) Extrahepatic manifestation (B) Significant titre of anti-smooth muscle antibody
(C) Characteristic liver histology (D) Hepatitis B surface antigen
Ans: C
100. Cellophane tape technique is used for collection of ova of:
(A) Trichuristrichiura (B) Enterobiusvermicularis (C) Taenia (D) Hook worm
Ans: B
(A) Transport of fluids and proteins through endothelial cells (B) Migration of neutrophils through endothelial cell
(C) Migration of platelets through endothelial cells (D) Locomotion oriented along chemical gradient
Ans: A
52. A 16 year old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary?
(A) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries) (B) Mucinous cystadenoma (C) Psamomma bodies (D) Hemmorhagic corpus leuteum
Ans: A
53. Which of the following is X- linked recessive?
(A) Duschene muscular dystrophy (B) Hypophosphatemic rickets (C) Marfans syndrome (D) Downs syndrome
Ans: A
54. The best suited nucleated cell for chromosomal study
(A) Polymorphs (B) Lymphocytes (C) Epithelial cells (D) Langerhan’s cell
Ans: B
55. Real time polymerase chain reaction is done for:
(A) DNA detection only (B) RNA detection only (C) Both RNA and DNA detection (D) Monitoring amplification of target nucleic acid
Ans: D
56. True about ELISA are all, except:
(A) It is most sensitive screening test (B) It can be used for only antibody detection
(C) 96 samples can be tested at a time (D) Takes 2-3 hrs for performing assay
Ans: B
57. Phagocytosis is not done by:
(A) NK cells (B) Histiocytes
(C) Neutrophils (D) Macrophages
Ans: A
58. Which among the following is not an adhesion molecule?
(A) Integrin (B) Selectin (C) Interferon (D) Transferrin
Ans: D
59. Histamine causes all except:
(A) Arteriolar dilatation (B) Increased permeability of venules (C) Constriction of large arteries (D) Platelet aggregation
Ans: D
60. Spectral karyotyping is also known as:
(A) FISH (B) Multicolor FISH (C) Microarray (D) PCR
Ans: B
61. Techniques used for detectinggene mutation is:
(A) Real-time PCR (B) Denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (C) DNA sequencing (D) All of the above
Ans: D
62. DNA repair defect is associated with:
(A) Xerodermapigmentosum (B) Icthyosis (C) Angelman syndrome (D) DiGeorge’s syndrome
Ans: A
63. Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Thymus
Ans: B
64. K-RAS proto-oncogene is associated with:
(A) Colon cancer (B) Breast cancer (C) Bladder cancer (D) Melanoma
Ans: A
65. All of the following are angiogenic factors except:
(A) VEGF (B) Platelet activating factor (C) IFNα (D) TGF-β
Ans: C
66. Human papilloma virus is associated with all except:
(A) Oropharyngeal tumors (B) Carcinoma nasopharynx (C) Carcinoma anal canal (D) Carcinoma cervix
Ans: B
67. Inherited cancer syndromes include all except:
(A) Retinoblastoma (B) Neurofibroma (C) Xerodermapigmentosa (D) Familial polyposis coli
Ans: C
68. Malignancy associated with erythropoietin secretion is:
(A) Breast cancer (B) Prostate cancer (C) Small cell lung cancer (D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans: D
69. HMB-45 is positive in:
(A) Small cell carcinoma of lung (B) Adenocarcinoma of lung (C) Squamous cell carcinoma of lung (D) Angiomyolipoma of lung
Ans: D
70. Clover leaf cells are seen in:
(A) Burkitt’s lymphoma (B) Adult T cell leukemia-lymphoma (C) Hairy cell leukemia (D) Mantle cell lymphoma
Ans: B
71. Lethal midline granuloma is:
(A) T cell lymphoma (B) B -cell lymphoma (C) ExtranodalNK/ T cell lymphoma (D) Mycosis fungoids
Ans: C
72. In POEM syndrome E stands for:
(A) Endocrinopathy (B) Edema (C) Eosinophilia (D) Erythema
Ans: A
73. For monitoring warfarin therapy we use
(A) PT (B) CT (C) aPTT (D) PT-INR
Ans: A
74. Elevated D-dimer levels are specific for:
(A) Deep vein thrombosis (B) Pulmonary thromboembolism (C) Systemic embolism (D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Ans: D
75. Onion peeling of renal vessels is seen in:
(A) Benign hypertension (B) Malignant hypertension (C) Diabetic nephropathy (D) SLE
Ans: B
76. Pulseless disease is:
(A) Giant cell arteritis (B) Takayasu arteritis (C) Kawasaki disease (D) Polyarteritisnodosa(PAN)
Ans: B
77. Spontaneous regression can occur with:
(A) Cavernous hemagioma (B) Strawberry angioma (C) Nevus flemes (D) None of above
Ans: B
78. Irreversible change in ischemia of heart occurs in?
(A) 10 min (B) 30 min (C) 60 min (D) 90 min
Ans: B
79. The following are true regarding hyaline membrane disease except:
(A) Basic abnormality is deficiency of surfactant (B) Prenatal diagnosis by low amniotic fluid L/S ratio
(C) Intratracheal surfactant helps (D) Occurs in babies born post-dates
Ans: D
80. True about miliary tuberculosis:
(A) Occur primarily due to hematogenous spread (B) Miliary lesion is generally of size 1-2mm
(C) Onset is generally acute (D) Sputum smear microscopy is negative in 80% of cases
Ans: C
81. Subepidermal bullae are seen in all except:
(A) Bullous pemphigoid (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis (C) Linear IgA bullous dermatosis (D) Pemphigus vulgaris
Ans: D
82. Premalignant lesion is:
(A) Actinic keratosis (B) Seborrheic keratosis (C) Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia (D) All of the above
Ans: A
83. CD 34 positivity is seen in:
(A) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (B) Neurofibroma (C) Dermatofibroma (D) Myofibroma
Ans: A
84. Cafe au lait lesions are seen in:
(A) Neurilemmoma (B) Neurofibromatosis (C) Neuroma (D) Neurothekeoma
Ans: B
85. Special stain for mast cell is:
(A) Giemsa (B) Toluidine blue (C) Chloracetate esterase (D) All of the above
Ans: D
86. Fascicular pattern is seen in following tumors except:
(A) Leiomyosarcoma (B) Synovial sarcoma (C) Fibromatosis (D) Neurofibroma
Ans: D
87. Soft tissue tumors showing myxoid change are all except:
(A) Neurofibroma (B) Liposarcoma (C) Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (D) Synovial sarcoma
Ans: D
88. Zellballen pattern is seen in:
(A) Paraganglioma (B) Pheochromocytoma (C) Carotid body tumor (D) All of the above
Ans: D
89. Palisading pattern is seen in all except:
(A) Schwannoma (B) Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor (C) Leiomyosarcoma (D) Fibrosarcoma
Ans: D
90. Primary biliary cirrhosis is positive for:
(A) ANCA (B) Anti-mitochondrial antibody (C) Anti-nuclear antibody (D) Anti-microsomal antibody
Ans: B
91. True statements about aa aa a1-anti-trypsin deficiency are all, except:
(A) Autosomal dominant disease (B) Emphysema (C) Fibrosis of portal tract (D) Diastase resistant PAS positive hepatocytes
Ans: A
92. True about prehepatic jaundice is all except:
(A) Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (B) Increased urobilinogen
(C) Raised alkaline phosphatase (D) Absent bile salts/ bile pigments in urine
Ans: C
93. AST/ ALT ratio >2.0 is highly suggestive of:
(A) Alcoholic hepatitis (B) Acute viral hepatitis (C) Cirrhosis (D) None of the above
Ans: A
94. Ziehl-Neelsen stain sputum smear is positive if number of tuberculous bacilli in sputum is:
(A) 500-1000/ml (B) 1000-3000/ml (C) 3000-5000/ml (D) 5000-10,000/ml
Ans: D
95. Colon carcinogenesis by adenoma-carcinoma sequence is associated with all except:
(A) APC (B) k-RAS (C) β-catenin (D) Mismatch repair
Ans: D
96. Minimum number of polyps necessary for a diagnosis of familial adenomatous polyposis is:
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D) 100
Ans: D
97. Budd-chiari syndrome is characterized by all except:
(A) Hepatic veno-occlusive disease (B) Hepatomegaly (C) Portal vein obstruction (D) IVC obstruction
Ans: C
98. Acute hepatitis ‘B’ can be diagnosed by:
(A) IgM anti-HBcAb (B) HBeAg (C) IgG anti-HBcAb (D) Core antigen
Ans: A
99. Chronic Active Hepatitis is most reliably distinguished from chronic persistent hepatitis by the presence of:
(A) Extrahepatic manifestation (B) Significant titre of anti-smooth muscle antibody
(C) Characteristic liver histology (D) Hepatitis B surface antigen
Ans: C
100. Cellophane tape technique is used for collection of ova of:
(A) Trichuristrichiura (B) Enterobiusvermicularis (C) Taenia (D) Hook worm
Ans: B
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